Study For Buddies: Ty Semester 6 Mcqs
Showing posts with label Ty Semester 6 Mcqs. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Ty Semester 6 Mcqs. Show all posts

Sunday, March 3, 2024

MARKETING RESEARCH (MR)

March 03, 2024 0
MARKETING RESEARCH (MR)
T.Y. B.COM
SEMESTER 6


MARKETING RESEARCH  (MR)
MCQS : MARCH 2023

1. If there were a need to isolate key variables and relationships for further examination, would be best to perform __________.

(A) Descriptive research
(B) Causal research
(C) Exploratory research
(D) Conclusive research

2. Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the "problem definition" and the "development of an approach to the problem" steps of the marketing research process?

(A) Analysis of secondary data
(B) Interviews with industry experts
(C) Qualitative research
(D) All of the above

3. A __________ is a formalized set of procedures for generating, analyzing, storing, and distributing pertinent information to marketing decision makers on an ongoing basis.

(A) Marketing information system
(B) Management information system
(C) Decision support system
(D) None of the above

4. Which data collection method is used in causal research?

(A) Surveys
(B) Experiments
(C) Expert surveys
(D) Panels

5. An interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of respondents in an unstructured and natural manner is a(n) ___________.

(A) Depth interview
(B) Projective technique
(C) Focus group
(D) Association technique

6. Which of the following is not a personal interview method?

(A) In-home
(B) Mall intercept
(C) Computer-Assisted Personal Interview (CAPI)
(D) E-mail

7. The primary objective of __________ is to provide insights into, and an understanding of, the problem confronting the researcher.

(A) Exploratory research
(B) Conclusive research
(C) Causal research
(D) Descriptive research

8. Syndicated services __________.

(A) Specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project
(B) Are companies that collect and sell commen pools of data designed to serve information needs shared by a number of clients
(C) Are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way
(D) Offer a wide variety of marketing research services customized to suit a client's specific needs

9. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data?

(A) The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may not be appropriate to the present situation.
(B) Secondary data may be expensive and time consuming.
(C) Secondary data may be lacking in accuracy.
(D) Secondary data may not be completely current or dependable.

10. Which personal interviewing method utilizes help-screens and courteous error messages?

(A) In-home
(B) Mall intercept
(C) Computer-Assisted Personal Interview (CAPI)
(D) E-mail

11. As compared to primary data, Secondary data are collected _________.

(A) Rapidly and easily
(B) In a short time
(C) At a relatively low cost
(D) All of the above

12. Which of the following classifications of secondary data is not a classification for external secondary data?

(A) Ready-to-use
(B) Published materials
(C) Computerized databases
(D) Syndicated services

13. It is possible to locate information on a particular topic in several different publications by using __________.

(A) Directories
(B) Indexes
(C) Guides
(D) Statistical published data

14. The first step in the questionnaire design process is 

(A) Specify the type of interview method
(B) Identify the form and layout
(C) Specify the information needed
(D) Determine the content of individual questions

15. Which of the following is not a part of the questionnaire design process?

(A) Specify the type of interviewing method
(B) Arrange questions in proper order
(C) Reproduce the questionnaire
(D) Develop sampling plan

16. ___________ are databases composed of citations to articles in journals, magazines, newspapers, marketing research studies, technical reports, government documents, and the like.

(A) Bibliographic databases
(B) Online databases
(C) Offline databases
(D) Internet databases

17. "Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?" is an example of a __________.

(A) Double-barreled question
(B) Structured question
(C) Dichotomous question
(D) Branching question

18. In a __________ respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.

(A) Semantic differential scale
(B) Continuous rating scale
(C) Likert scale
(D) Stapel scale

19. "Describe your college experience." Is _________ question.

(A) Dichotomous
(B) Filter
(C) Structured
(D) Unstructured

20. __________is a type of problem identification research.

(A) Market characteristics research
(B) Distribution research
(C) Pricing research
(D) Promotion research

21. __________ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name, address, and phone number

(A) Qualifying information
(B) Basic information
(C) Identification information
(D) Classification information

22. Which of the words below is an ambiguous word?

(A) Often
(B) Never
(C) Once
(D) None of the above

23. Which scale is not an itemized rating scale?

(A) Stapel scale
(B) Likert scale
(C) Semantic differential scale
(D) Continuous rating scale

24. Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem-solving research?

(A) The need to understand market potential
(B) The need to understand current cultural trends
(C) The need to determine where to locate retail outlets
(D) The need to understand changes in consumer behavior

25. __________ is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on surface and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future.

(A) Segmentation research
(B) Problem solving research
(C) Problem identification research
(D) Marketing information systems

26. A __________ is a seven point rating scale with endpoints associated with bi-polar labels that have semantic meaning.

(A) Semantic differential scale
(B) Continuous rating scale
(C) Likert scale
(D) Stapel scale

27. __________ is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project.

(A) Research classification.
(B) Research design
(C) Design formulation
(D) None of the above

28. Questions that require respondents to choose from a set of predetermined answers are __________ questions.

(A) Dual response 
(B) Open-ended
(C) Fixed alternative 
(D) None of the above

29. Which statement is not true about Research design?

(A) Research design is a framework for conducting the marketing research project 
(B) Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures. 
(C) Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.
(D) Research design is undertaken after the marketing research problem is defined.

30. Marketing research helps the marketing manager link the __________ with the __________ and the customer groups

(A) Marketing variables, environment
(B) Marketing variables; marketing information system
(C) Marketing information system; environment
(D) None of the above

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Monday, March 21, 2022

Marketing Research Mcqs

March 21, 2022 6
Marketing Research Mcqs
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 6

MARKETING RESEARCH
(MR)
MCQs: MARCH 2017

1. Research that is motivated by personal or political gain is: 

A. Systematic research
B. Objective research
C. Subjective research
D. Scientific research

2. Marketing Research is the function that links:

A. Consumer and Marketer through information
B. Consumer and Marketer to the Public through information
C. Consumer and Marketer to the Government through information
D. Consumer, Customer, and Public to the Marketer through information

3. ____________ is not an example of problem-solving research.

A. Product Research 
B. Promotion Researche
C. Sales Analysis Research 
D. Pricing Research

4. _________ is an example of Problem-Identification Research

A. Market Share Research 
B. Distribution Research 
C. Pricing Research 
D. Segmentation Research 

5. Measuring effectiveness of advertising copy is best described by:

A. Product Research 
B. Promotion Research 
C. Pricing Research 
D. Distribution Research

6. Test Marketing a new product or brand would belong to:

A. Product Research 
B. Promotion Research 
C. Pricing Research 
D. Distribution Research

7. ________ research could be used to develop hypotheses.

A. Exploratory 
B. Descriptive
C. Causal
D. None of the above

8. __________ research could be used to control the effect of other mediating variables.

A. Exploratory
B. Descriptive
C. Causal 
D. None of the above

9. ________ refers to the degree of standardization imposed on the data collection process.

A. Coding
B. Structured 
C. Non-disguised 
D. mutually exclusive 

10. When the respondents need to see, handle, or consume the product in a specific shopping environment, the researcher uses.

A. Computer-Assisted Personal Interviewing
B. Mall-Intercept Personal Interviews
C. Focus Groups
D. Personal In-Home Interviews

11. being unable or unwilling to provide desired information is a disadvantage for: 

A. fixed-alternative questions
B. unstructured data
C. the survey method
D. Focus groups

12. An Experimental Group is: 

A. The group that contains a selection bias.
B. The group that contains no effect of the dependent
C. The group exposed to the treatment variable. 
D. The group that is used as a basis for comparison.

13. The collection of _________ data involves all the steps of the marketing research process.

A. Only Primary Data
B. Both Primary and Secondary Data
C. Only secondary data 
D. Neither primary nor secondary data

14. Information from a common database sold by companies to different clients having similar information needs would qualify as:

A. Internal primary data 
B. External primary data 
C. Internal secondary data 
D. External secondary data

15. Average weekly sales of Parle G biscuits from D'Mart for 2013 for Parle would qualify as: 

A. Both Primary and Secondary Data
B. Only Primary Data 
C. Only secondary data
D. Neither primary nor secondary data 

16. __________ is a data gathering technique in which respondents record their purchases online or in a dirty.

A. Media panel's
B. Purchase panel's 
C. Scanner panel's 
D. Survey panel's

17. Scanner data that provides information on purchases by brand, size, price, and flavor or formulation is called:

A. Scanner data 
B. Scanner panels 
C. Scanner panels with cable TV 
D. Volume tracking data

18. In ___________ electronic devices automatically record viewing behavior to supplement an online panel

A. Purchase panels
B. Media panels
C. Scanner panels
D. Scanner panels with cable TV

19. A type of information obtained in a questionnaire that included name, address, and phone number is:

A. Demographic information
B. Identification information
C. Classification information
D. Basic information

20. A question that clues the respondent to answer in a certain way is called a: 

A. Dichotomous question
B. Double-barreled question
C. Disguised question
D. Leading question

21. When the set of response alternative are mutually exclusive they:

A. include all possible choices
B. permit only one answer
C. imply open-ended answers
D. control for order bias

22. Open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words are called: 

A. Unstructured questions
B. Structured questions
C. Disguised questions
D. Leading questions

23. _________ bias is the respondent's tendency to agree with the direction of a question. 

A. Order
B. Acquiescence 
C. Respondent 
D. Systematic

24. _______ bias is the respondent's tendency to check an alternative merely because it occupies a certain position. 

A. Order 
B. Systematic
C. Acquiescence 
D. Respondent

25. Questions that have collectively exhaustive response alternative are called: 

A. Structured questions
B. Unstructured questions
C. Multiple-Choice questions 
D. Dichotomous questions 

26. ________ is a strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire to prevent specific questions from biasing general questions. 

A. Branching Questions
B. Acquiescence Bias
C. Dichotomous questions
D. Funnel Approach

27. Questions that combine two separate issues into a single question are called: 

A. Dichotomous questions
B. Structured questions
C. Unstructured questions
D. Double-barreled question

28. The _______ scale is also referred to as a summated scale. 

A. Continuous
B. Likert
C. Semantic differential
D. Staple

29. The Semantic Differential scale is bounded at each end by:

A. Bipolar adjectives
B. Degree of agreement
C. Unipolar synonyms
D. A continuous line

30. The ________ scale does not contain a neutral point.

A. Continuous
B. Likert 
C. Semantic differential
D. Staple

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Thursday, July 8, 2021

International Finance MCQS With Solutions

July 08, 2021 7
International Finance MCQS With Solutions
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 6

INTERNATIONAL FINANCE
(IF)
MCQS

1. Global bond market consists of all bonds sold by issued companies, governments, or other firms

A. within their own countries
B. outside their own countries
C. to London banks
D. to developing nations only

2. more instability in currency is called as

A. country risk
B. financial risk
C. currency risk
D. liquidity risk

3. Foreign bonds issued in Japan are known

A. bulldog bonds
B. dragon bonds
C. Yankee bonds
D. samurai bonds

4. Largest number of buyers and sellers, greater the

A. liquidity
B. speculation
C. hedging
D. forward rate

5. Exchange rate entail delivery of trade currency within two business days know as

A. forward rate
B. future rate
C. spot rate
D. bid rate

6. Differences in nominal interest rates are removed in exchange rate is

A. fisher effect
B. Leontief paradox
C. Combined equilibrium theory
D. purchasing power parity

7. Simplicity with which bondholders and shareholders can change their investments into cash is known

A. barter
B. hedging
C. arbitrage
D. liquidity

8. Eurobonds are admired because

A. they are less risky than traditional bonds
B. European companies are considered very stable
C. of absence of government regulation
D. they are always denominated in euro

9. Bid quote is for

A. seller
B. buyer
C. hedger
D. speculator

10. Bid-ask spread in foreign exchange market is the

A. price of currency in foreign exchange market
B. difference between bid and ask quotes for a currency
C. price at which a bank will buy a currency
D. price a bank will pay for a currency

11. Not aim of international capital market is

A. preserving hard currencies to finance trade deficits
B. reducing cost of money to borrowers
C. reducing investor risk
D. expanding money supply for borrowers

12. which of following causes do investors employ foreign exchange market

A. currency hedging
B. currency speculation
C. currency conversion
D. all of above

13. in 1944 international accord is recognized as

A. Breton Wood Agreement
B. Exchange Agreement
C. International Trade
D. Fisher Effect

14. If a company agreements today for several future date of real currency exchange, they will be building use of a

A. stock rate
B. stock rate
C. futures rate
D. forward rate

15. International Money Market is for about

A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 5 years
D. 1 years

16. Case of foreign exchange

A. Exchange of claims denominated in another currency
B. exchange of bank deposits
C. Exchange of cash issued by a foreign central bank
D. All of above

17. Gold standard introduced in

A. 1913
B. 1990
C. 1876
D. 1944

18. Market in which currencies buy and sell and their prices settle on is called the

A. Eurocurrency market
B. international capital market
C. international bond market
D. foreign exchange market

19. International capital market

A. innovative financial instruments
B. information technology
C. deregulation
D. foreign exchange rates

20. Order cost is cost of the

A. executing order
B. processing order
C. opportunity cost
D. none of these

21. International capital market

A. limits available set of lending opportunities
B. increases overall portfolio risk for investors
C. allows investors to reduce risk by holding international securities whose price move independently
D. is easily accessible to everyone

22. Ask quote is for

A. seller
B. buyer
C. hedger
D. speculator

23. A firm that purpose to connect sellers and buyers of foreign currency denominated bank deposits is entitled

A. a wholesaler
B. a broker
C. a bank
D. an investor

24. A simultaneous purchase and sale of foreign exchange for two different dates

A. currency devalue
B. currency swap
C. currency valuation
D. currency exchange

25. If your local currency is in variable form and foreign currency is in fixed form quotation will be:

A. indirect
B. direct
C. local form
D. foreign form

26. In a quote exchange rate, currency that is to be purchase with another currency is called:

A. liquid currency
B. foreign currency
C. local currency
D. base currency

27. Holding an inventory have

A. buying cost
B. selling cost
C. opportunity cost
D. exchange rate risk

28. Today, important factor that result in augmentation in international bond market is

A. low interest rates
B. high interest rates
C. moderate interest rates
D. all of above

29. World

A. interbank market
B. Eurocurrency market
C. securities exchanges
D. over-the-counter market

30. Governments enforce currency limitations to

A. protect a currency from speculators
B. keep resident individuals and businesses from investing in other nations
C. preserve hard currencies to finance trade deficits or repay debts
D. all of above

31. In primary markets, the first time issued shares to be publicly traded, in stock markets is considered as

A. traded offering
B. public markets
C. issuance offering
D. initial public offering

32. The exchange markets and over the counter markets are considered as two types of

A. floating market
B. risky market
C. secondary market
D. primary market

33. The current market price of common stock is $15 and the conversion rate received on conversion is $320 to calculate

A. $3,800
B. $2,800
C. $4,800
D. $5,800

34. The transaction cost of trading of financial instruments in centralized market is classified as

A. flexible costs
B. low transaction costs
C. high transaction costs
D. constant costs

35. The bonds that are backed by cash flow from project and are sold to finance particular project are classified as

A. finance bonds
B. revenue bonds
C. financing bonds
D. project bonds

36. The equation that shows the relationship between expected inflation, real interest rates, and nominal interest rates is called the

A. interest rate parity equation
B. Fisher equation
C. GDP deflator
D. net inflation index

37. Which of the following is not an example of a frequently used Euro-instrument? 

A. Eurobond 
B. Euro note 
C. Euro stock 
D. Euro commercial paper

38. When was IMF established?

A. Dec. 27, 1945
B. Jan. 30, 1947
C. Jan.1, 1946
D. Sept. 24, 1947

39. Which of the following is NOT a restriction to international trade?

A. Exchange Controls 
B. GATT
C. Subsidies
D. Quotas

40. Balance of payments of a country includes:

A. Balance of trade
B. Capital receipts and payments
C. Saving and investment account
D. Both (a) and (b)

41. It helps countries to meet deficit in balance of payments:

A. IMF
B. WTO
C. World Bank
D. UNO

42. Export of goods is called trade in:

A. Visible goods
B. Invisible goods
C. Basic goods
D. Non-real goods

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Thursday, June 17, 2021

INSURANCE PRODUCT - ASSIGNMENT AND NOMINATION MCQS

June 17, 2021 0
INSURANCE PRODUCT -  ASSIGNMENT AND NOMINATION MCQS
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 6

INSURANCE PRODUCT
(IP)
MCQS -  ASSIGNMENT AND
NOMINATION

(1) Life insurance policy is a ________ of the policy holder.

(a) Asset
(b) Liability 
(c) debt 
(d) none of these

(2) ______ can transfer the rights, title and interest in the life insurance policy to the assignee.

(a) Assignee 
(b) assignor 
(c) insurance company
(d) heirs of the policy holder

(3) Assignment means _______ of rights, title and interest in the property from the assignor to assignee.

(a) purchase 
(b) sale 
(c) transfer
(d) none of above

(4) According to Insurance Act, ________ Section _______ transfer or assignment of a life insurance policy can be done by endorsement or an instrument.

(a) 1936; 36 (2) 
(b) 1938; 38 (1) 
(c) 1940; 40 (1) 
(d) 1942; 42 (a)

(5) Transfer or Assignment of life insurance policy can be done by…

(a) Endorsement 
(b) an instrument
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these.

(6) When assignment is done by ___ stamp duty is payable.

(a) Endorsement 
(b) an instrument
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

(7) When assignment is done by _______ stamp duty is not necessary.

(a) Endorsement 
(b) an instrument
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

(8) The endorsement or a separate deed must be signed by _______ or ______.

(a) Assignor; assignee
(b) assignee; insurance company
(c) authorized agent of the transferor; assignee
(d) Assignor; authorized agent of the transferor

(9) _______ must attest the signature of the assignor.

(a) Assignor
(b) assignee
(c) a witness
(d) insurance company

(10) The assignment is complete and effective …

(a) when it is executed and sent to the insurer along with notice
(b) when it is executed and sent to assignor along with notice
(c) when it is executed and sent to assignee along with notice
(d) none of these

(11) The assignment is effective when _______ is delivered to insurer.

(a) assignment
(b) notice
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(12) Upon the receipt of notice the insurer shall ______

(a) record the facts of such transfer or assignment together with dates.
(b) send the assignment to the assignee.
(c) send the notice to the assignor
(d) cancel the policy.

(13) Subject to the terms and condition of the transfer or assignment ______ is entitled to benefits under the policy.

(a) transferee or assignee 
(b) transfer or assigner
(c) insurer
(d) none of these

(14) Assignments are either _________ or ________.

(a) absolute; conditional 
(b) absolute; unconditional
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(15) ________ is a simple way to ensure easy payment.

(a) nomination
(b) assignment
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(16) Nomination can be done …

(a) at the time of proposal 
(b) at any time during the currency of the policy
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(17) ________ can nominate the person or persons, to whom the money shall be paid in the event of his death.

(a) insurer 
(b) nominee 
(c) the policy holder 
(d) assignee

(18) A nomination can be done by _______ or _______.

(a) endorsement 
(b) separate piece of paper
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(19) Nomination must be communicated to _________ and should be registered by ________.

(a) insurer; insurer 
(b) nominee; insurer 
(c) insurer; nominee 
(d) nominator; insurer

(20) Nomination can be cancelled or changed by the policy holder by…

(a) making another endorsement
(b) making a separate piece of paper
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(21) The insurer should send a ________ of having _______ a nomination or change or cancellation.

(a) written acknowledgement; registered 
(b) policy; registered
(c) nomination from; registered
(d) none of these

(22) When a policy is assigned or transferred, the existing nomination is automatically ____.

(a) renewed 
(b) canceled 
(c) done 
(d) none of these

(23) Assignee cannot make a nomination because.......

(a) he is a life assured 
(b) he is an assurer
(c) he is not a life assured 
(d) none of these

(24) When the policy is _______ to the life assured, he will have to make _______.

(a) assigned; a fresh nomination 
(b) reassigned; a fresh nomination
(c) nominated; a fresh assignment 
(d) none of these

(25) A nomination gives the nominee ___ in the event of death of life assured.

(a) the right to receive the policy money.
(b) the right to assign/transfer the rights, title and interest in the policy
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(26) In case of a minor the policy holder should appoint _______.

(a) nominee 
(b) appointee 
(c) assigner 
(d) assignee

(27) The appointee must affix his signature to the endorsement either in _______ or on the _______.

(a) assignment; nomination 
(b) nomination; assignment
(c) proposal form; text of policy 
(d) none of these

(28) _________has a right to revoke the appointment of the appointee and to appoint a fresh appointee.

(a) Appointee
(b) Nominee 
(c) Assigner 
(d) The assured person

(29) In case of minor the appointee loses his status, when the nominee becomes ________.

(a) insolvent 
(b) appointee 
(c) major
(d) (a) & (b) both

(30) If the nominee is minor and there is no appointee, the claim amount can be paid to only ________ of the deceased policy holder and not to _____.

(a) guardian; the legal heirs 
(b) the legal heirs; guardians
(c) guardian; assignee 
(d) assignee; guardian

(31) Nomination can be done ___ or ___the issue of policy but assignment can be done by ___the issue of the policy only.

(a) after; before; after 
(b) after; after; before
(c) before; before; after 
(d) after; after; afte

(32) Nomination..…, whereas assignment…..

(a) cannot be done by a separate deed; can be done by separate deed
(b) can be done by a separate deed; cannot be done by a separate deed
(c) can be done by a separate deed; can be done by a separate deed
(d) cannot be done by a separate deed; cannot be done by a separate deed

(33) After ________ the policy holder loses control over the policy but after ________ the policy holder retains full control over the policy.

(a) nomination; assignment 
(b) assignment; nomination
(c) nomination; surrender
(d) none of these

(34) After _______ the assignee is the owner of the policy.

(a) nomination
(b) surrender
(c) assignment
(d) none of these

(35) __________ need not be supported by a consideration whereas _________ must be supported by a consideration.

(a) assignment; nomination 
(b) nomination; assignment
(c) surrender; nomination 
(d) nomination; surrender

(36) Nomination _______ witnessed whereas assignment ________ witnessed.

(a) must be; may be 
(b) cannot be; can be
(c) may be; must be 
(d) can be; may be

(37) _________ has no right to sue under policy but ________ has right to sue under the policy.

(a) assignee; nominee 
(b) witness; assignor;
(c) nominee; assignee 
(d) assignor; witness

(38) _________ can be altered by the life insured whereas ________ cannot be cancelled by the life insured / assignor.

(a) assignment; nomination 
(b) nomination; assignment
(c) a separate instrument; assignment
(d) none of these.

(39) If the nominee is minor appointment of _________ is required in case of nomination whereas appointment of _________ is required in the case of assignment.

(a) guardian; appointee 
(b) appointee; guardian
(c) assignee; nominee
(d) none of these

(40) _________ does not get vested interest in the policy whereas _________ acquire interest.

(a) assignee; nominee 
(b) nominee; assignor
(c) assignor; nominee
(d) Nominee; assignee

(41) If the nominee dies after the life assured and before settlement of the claim …

(a) the policy money are deposited in government treasury.
(b) the policy money are payable to the heirs of the nominee.
(c) the policy money are payable to the heirs of the life assured.
(d) none of these

(42) If the assignee dies at any time, the policy money…....

(a) are payable to the heirs of nominee 
(b) are payable to the heirs of assignee
(c) are payable to the heirs of assignor 
(d) are payable to the heirs of nominator

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INSURANCE PRODUCT - MCQS

June 17, 2021 0
INSURANCE PRODUCT - MCQS
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 6

INSURANCE PRODUCT
(IP)
MCQS 

UNIT - 3 LIFE INSURANCE PRODUCTS

TERM LIFE POLICIES

1) Which policy is simplest and cheapest form of life insurance policy ?

(A) Term Life Policy 
(B) Whole Life Policy
(C) Endowment Insurance Policy 
(D) Annuities

2) Term insurance is also known as...............

(A) Property insurance 
(B) Life insurance
(C) Temporary insurance 
(D) None of the above

3) Which of the following is the type of term insurance policies ?

(A) Level benefit term insurance 
(B) Decreasing benefit term insurance
(C) Increasing benefit term insurance 
(D) All of the above

4) In which type of term insurance policy the coverage remains constant throughout the policy ?

(A) Level benefit term insurance 
(B) Decreasing benefit term insurance
(C) Increasing benefit term insurance 
(D) None of these

5) In which type of term insurance policy the coverage keeps on increasing periodically over the term ?

(A) Level benefit term insurance 
(B) Decreasing benefit term insurance
(C) Increasing benefit term insurance 
(D) None of these

6) In which type of term insurance policy the coverage keeps decreasing with the time ?

(A) Level benefit term insurance 
(B) Increasing benefit term insurance
(C) Decreasing benefit term insurance 
(D) None of these

WHOLE LIFE POLICIES

7) Which insurance policy provides life insurance protection over the lifetime of the assured?

(A) Whole life policies 
(B) Level benefit term insurance
(C) Increasing benefit term insurance 
(D) Decreasing benefit term insurance

8) Which type of whole life policy provides surplus such as profits, bonus, dividends, etc.?

(A) Participating whole life policy 
(B) Non-participating whole life policy
(C) Ordinary whole life policy
(D) None of these

9) Which policy is plain vanilla type whole life policy ?

(A) Ordinary whole life insurance 
(B) Limited payment whole life insurance
(C) Convertible whole life insurance 
(D) Increasing whole life insurance

10) Which type of policy can be converted into endowment insurance policy ?

(A) Ordinary whole life insurance 
(B) Limited payment whole life insurance
(C) Convertible whole life insurance 
(D) Increasing whole life insurance

11) In which type of whole life policy the cover under policy increase at a pre-determined level ?

(A) Ordinary whole life insurance 
(B) Limited payment whole life insurance
(C) Convertible whole life insurance
(D) Increasing whole life insurance

ENDOWMENT INSURANCE POLICIES

12) Which insurance policy provides living benefit as well as life insurance ?

(A) Term life insurance 
(B) Whole life insurance
(C) Endowment insurance 
(D) None of these

13) Which insurance policy provides the benefit of accumulating capital and protects the saving of the insured ?

(A) Term life insurance 
(B) Whole life insurance
(C) Endowment insurance 
(D) All of these

14) In which type of endowment policy the sum assured is payable either on survival or death within endowment period ?

(A) Pure endowment 
(B) Joint endowment
(C) Marriage endowment 
(D) All of these

15) Which endowment policy provides cover of risk on two or more lives under single policy ?

(A) Pure endowment 
(B) Joint endowment
(C) Marriage endowment 
(D) None of these

16) Which endowment policy is designed to meet the marriage financing needs of the family member of the policyholder ?

(A) Pure endowment 
(B) Joint endowment
(C) Marriage endowment 
(D) None of the above

17) In which endowment policy the premium during the first five years are very high and from the sixth year it scaled down to 1/3rd of the original premium ?

(A) Jeevan Mitra 
(B) Bhavishya Jeevan Policy
(C) Jeevan Griha 
(D) New Jana Raksha

18) In which type of endowment policy the risk cover will be twice or thrice of the face value of the policy ?

(A) Bhavishya Jeevan 
(B) Jeevan Mitra
(C) Jeevan Griha 
(D) Jeevan Shree

19) Which endowment policy is suitable for agriculturists ?

(A) Jeevan Mitra 
(B) Jeevan Griha 
(C) New Jana Raksha 
(D) Jeevan Shree

20) Which endowment policy provides rider to cover the serious illness ?

(A) Jeevan Mitra 
(B) Jeevan Shree 
(C) New Jana Raksha 
(D) Asha Deep II

21) In which policy the face value of the policy is paid in installments and at the end the
balance being paid on maturity ?

(A) Money Back Plan 
(B) Endowment Plan
(C) Term Life Plan 
(D) Whole Life Plan

22) Which of the following is type of money back plan ?

(A) Jeevan surabhi 
(B) Jeevan sanchay 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

23) .......... is a special type of money back plan designed for females.

(A) Jeevan Surabhi 
(B) Jeevan Sanchay
(C) Jeevan Sneha 
(D) Jeevan Shree

24) Which policy is limited payment whole life policy for the life of the parent ?

(A) Jeevan Aadhar 
(B) Jeevan Sanchay
(C) Jeevan Sneha
(D) Jeevan Shree

25) Which insurance policy provides benefit of joint life assurance for husband and wife ?

(A) Jeevan sathi 
(B) Jeevan saritha 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

ANNUITIES

26) In which type of insurance plan the policyholder regular contributes over a period of time accumulate to form a corpus with the insurer ?

(A) Annuities 
(B) Whole life policy
(C) Term life policy 
(D) Joint life policy

27) In ........... annuities the payments begin within one year of purchase.

(A) Fixed 
(B) Variable 
(C) Deferred 
(D) Immediate

28) In ............. annuity the payment to the annuitant start after a certain deferment period.

(A) Fixed 
(B) Variable 
(C) Deferred 
(D) Immediate

29) ........ annuity assures minimum rate of return.

(A) Fixed 
(B) Variable 
(C) Deferred 
(D) Immediate

30) Which annuity offers a verity of investment fund portfolios ?

(A) Fixed 
(B) Variable 
(C) Deferred 
(D) Immediate

31) Annuities provides Tax benefits u/s ...... of the Income Tac Act, 1961.

(A) 81
(B) 84 
(C) 86 
(D) 88

32) How many options are there in Annuity ?

(A) 4 
(B) 6 
(C) 3 
(D) 5

33) In ........... annuity the annuitant receives income payments for the rest of his/her life.

(A) Single life 
(B) Single life with period certain
(C) Joint and survivor 
(D) Joint and survivor with period certain

34) In .......... annuity the annuitant and the designated joint annuitant will receive income for the rest of their lives.

(A) Single life 
(B) Single life with period certain
(C) Joint and survivor 
(D) Joint and survivor with period certain

35) In .......... annuity, if the annuitant and his/her joint annuitant die before a specific number of payments the beneficiary will receive income for the reminder of the period certain.

(A) Single life 
(B) Single life with period certain
(C) Joint and survivor 
(D) Joint and survivor with period certain

GROUP INSURANCE

36) Which insurance is an extension of individual insurance into class insurance ?

(A) Group insurance 
(B) Life insurance
(C) Mediclaim insurance 
(D) All of these

37) OYTA means...........

(A) Over Your Term Assurance 
(B) One Year’s Term Assurance
(C) Only Year Term Assurance 
(D) None of these

38) Group insurance is a contract between ............ and .............

(A) Insurer, employees 
(B) Insurer, company
(C) Insurer, group 
(D) Insurer, Employer

39) In which year the first group insurance policy was issued ?

(A) 1909 
(B) 1999 
(C) 1911 
(D) 1920

40) ............ insurance is blessing for both employers and employees.

(A) Joint insurance 
(B) Group insurance
(C) Individual insurance 
(D) Life insurance

LAPSE AND NONE FORFEITURE

41) When there is default on the part of policyholder and termination of policy it is called...........

(A) Lapse 
(B) Forfeiture 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

42) The policy conditions provides various safeguards to policyholders when there is premium default, it is called........

(A) Lapse 
(B) Forfeiture 
(C) Non-forfeiture 
(D) None of these

43) Under.............. scheme the policyholder will be required to pay the full arrears but only six monthly premiums, two quarterly premiums, one half yearly premium or half of the yearly premium.

(A) Installment Revival 
(B) Loan cum Revival
(C) Money Back 
(D) None of these

44) In ........... scheme, the arrears required for revival are advanced out of surrender value of the policy as a loan under the policy.

(A) Installment Revival 
(B) Loan cum Revival
(C) Money Back 
(D) None of these

45) In which scheme the survival amount can be adjusted towards the outstanding dues for
revival ?

(A) Installment Revival 
(B) Loan cum Revival
(C) Survival cum Revival 
(D) None of these

CLAIMS

46) ............. is the demand that the insurer should redeem the promise made in the contract.

(A) Lapse 
(B) Forfeiture 
(C) Claim 
(D) Insurance

47) MWP stands for .........

(A) Money With Plan 
(B) Money Without Plan
(C) Married Women’s Property 
(D) None of these

48) If the life assured dies after the date when the survival benefit was due, but before it is settled, the death claim will be paid to .......

(A) Family
(B) Nominee 
(C) Wife 
(D) No one

49) Which money back policy is paid during the currency of the policy, before the date of maturity ?

(A) Survival benefit 
(B) Maturity benefit
(C) Maturity benefit 
(D) None of these

RURAL / SOCIAL INSURANCE PRODUCTS

50) In rural sector, for a life insurer, ........ % in the first financial year going up to the policies written direct in that year.

(A) 5% 
(B) 7% 
(C) 10% 
(D) 12%

51) In general insurance, ......... % in the first financial year of the total gross premium income written direct in that year.

(A) 2% 
(B) 3% 
(C) 5%
 (D) 10%

52) In social sector, what is the obligation of insurer for the first financial year ?

(A) 5000 lives 
(B) 7500 lives 
(C) 10,000 lives 
(D) 15,000 lives

53) In social sector, what is the obligation of insurer for the second financial year ?

(A) 5000 lives 
(B) 7500 lives 
(C) 10,000 lives 
(D) 15,000 lives

54) What is the obligation of insurer in social sector for the third and fourth financial year?

(A) 5000 and 7500 lives 
(B) 7500 and 10,000 lives
(C) 10,000 and 15,000 lives 
(D) 15,000 and 20,000 lives

55) Which scheme provide life insurance protection to the families of Landless agricultural
labourers ?

(A) LALGI 
(B) LALPG 
(C) LLGAI 
(D) None of these

56) Which scheme provides insurance protection to rural and urban persons who are below or marginally at the poverty line ?

(A) Jan Shree BIMA Yojna 
(B) Jivan Shree BIMA Yojna
(C) Landless agricultural labourers group insurance scheme
(D) Social security group insurance scheme

PREMIUM AND BONUSES

57) ............ is the consideration that the policyholder has to pay in order to secure the benefits offered by the insurance contract.

(A) Claim 
(B) Premium 
(C) Fees 
(D) Penalty

ASSIGNMENT

58) When assignor transfers rights, title and interest to the assignee, it is called.......

(A) Assignment 
(B) Claim 
(C) Premium 
(D) Transfer

59) Life insurance policy is an actionable claim as described in ...........

(A) Property Act, 1982 
(B) Companies Act, 2013
(C) IRDA Act 
(D) Transfer of Property Act, 1882

60) Which of the following is type of assignment ?

(A) Absolute 
(B) Conditional 
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

NOMINATION

61) ......... is a simple way to ensure easy payment of policy money in the case of a death claim.

(A) Assignment 
(B) Nomination 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

62) ......... gives the nominee the right to receive the policy money in the event of death of the life assured.

(A) Nomination 
(B) Assignment 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

63) ............ can be changed by the policyholder by making another endowment on the policy.

(A) Nomination 
(B) Claim 
(C) Premium 
(D) Assignment

64) In Nomination, the policyholder retains full control and deal with the policy without the consent of ...............

(A) Assignor 
(B) Assignee 
(C) Nominee 
(D) Insurer

65) Nomination can be done...........

(A) before issue of the policy by mention in the proposal form or by a letter giving details of
(B) after issue of the policy, by an endorsement on the policy
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

SURRENDERS AND LOANS

66) When the policyholder voluntarily terminate the contract, it is called ...........

(A) Surrender 
(B) Termination 
(C) Assignment 
(D) Nomination

67) The amount payable by the insurer to the policyholder on surrender is called.......

(A) Surrender value 
(B) Cash value
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

68) The actual surrender value will be higher than ...........

(A) Face value
(B) Normal value 
(C) Cash value 
(D) Guaranteed surrender value

69) How many percentage of loan are given on the life insurance policy ?

(A) 80% of the surrendeer value 
(B) 90% of the surrendeer value
(C) 100% of the surrendeer value 
(D) Both A & B

UNIT - LINKED INSURANCE PRODUCTS

70) Give the full form of ULIP.

(A) Unit Linked Insurance Policies
(B) Union Linked Insurance Policy
(C) United Linked Insurance Policy 
(D) All of these

71) .......... provides a combination of the life insurance protection and investment.

(A) Life Insurance Policy 
(B) Endowment policy
(C) Unit Linked Insurance Policy 
(D) Term Life Policy

72) In ............ the policyholder can pay additional premium for investment at any time.

(A) ULIP 
(B) Life Insurance
(C) General Insurance 
(D) Endowment Insurance

73) In ......... the amount of the premium used for insurance coverage, other charges and purchase of units are unbundled and transparent.

(A) ULIP 
(B) Traditional Plans 
(C) Life Insurance 
(D) General Insurance

LIFE INSURANCE RIDERS

74) .......... are additional benefits that can be added to a basic life insurance policy to provide additional coverage.

(A) Joint Insurance 
(B) Endowment Insurance 
(C) Additional Insurance 
(D) Riders

75) Which type of rider covers the risk of death or permanent disability as a result of an accident?

(A) Accidental death/ permanent disability benefit rider 
(B) Critical illness rider
(C) Term Rider 
(D) Guaranteed Insurability Rider

76) Which Rider is helpful to protect the insured in the event of diagnosis of a critical illness ?

(A) Major Surgical Assistance Benefit 
(B) Guaranteed Insurability Rider
(C) Critical illness Rider 
(D) Term Rider

77) Which type of rider allows the insured to increase the insurance cover as the terms & conditions of the policy without future medical examination ?

(A) Accidental death rider 
(B) Term rider
(C) Critical illness rider 
(D) Guaranteed Insurability rider

78) Which type of rider provides payment of additional benefit on death over and above the basic policy cover ?

(A) Term rider 
(B) Waiver of premium rider
(C) Guaranteed Insurability rider 
(D) Critical illness rider

79) Which type of rider provides waiver of future premiums ?

(A) Term rider 
(B) Waiver of premium rider
(C) Guaranteed Insurability rider 
(D) Critical illness rider

80) Which type of rider provides insurance coverage for the spouse ?

(A) Term rider 
(B) Critical illness rider
(C) Guaranteed Insurability rider 
(D) Spouse Insurance rider

81) Which type of rider provides financial support in the event of medical emergencies that require surgery ?

(A) Major Surgical Assistance benefit 
(B) Term rider
(C) Guaranteed Insurability rider 
(D) Spouse Insurance rider

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