Study For Buddies: SSC CGL
Showing posts with label SSC CGL. Show all posts
Showing posts with label SSC CGL. Show all posts

Friday, September 11, 2026

CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs – 11 September 2026 Competitive Exams 2026 | Topic-Wise Practice

September 11, 2026 0
CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs – 11 September 2026 Competitive Exams 2026 | Topic-Wise Practice
CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs – 11 September 2026


Competitive Exams 2026 | Topic-Wise Practice

BRICS SUMMIT 2026

The 18th BRICS Leaders' Summit is scheduled to take place in New Delhi on September 12–13, 2026. India is hosting the summit at a time when global geopolitical tensions, trade disruptions and changes in international economic relations are attracting considerable attention.

According to The Times of India, the summit agenda includes global governance, strengthening multilateralism, trade and investment, technological cooperation, food and energy security, public health, disaster resilience and the security of critical global supply chains.

The summit is particularly significant because BRICS has expanded beyond its original five-member structure. The gathering is expected to provide an opportunity for member countries to discuss global economic and geopolitical developments and explore greater cooperation.

Delhi has also introduced extensive security and traffic arrangements for the summit because of the arrival of several high-level international leaders and delegations.

MCQs

1. The 18th BRICS Leaders' Summit 2026 is scheduled to be held in which city?
A) Mumbai
B) New Delhi
C) Bengaluru
D) Hyderabad

2. The BRICS Summit 2026 is scheduled for which dates?
A) September 10–11
B) September 11–12
C) September 12–13
D) September 14–15

3. Which of the following is part of the BRICS 2026 agenda?
A) Global governance
B) Trade and investment
C) Food and energy security
D) All of the above

4. Which issue related to international supply systems is expected to be discussed at the summit?
A) Critical global supply chains
B) Local transport
C) Tourism infrastructure
D) Sports infrastructure

INDIA–CHINA RELATIONS & XI JINPING'S VISIT
 
Chinese President Xi Jinping is visiting India after seven years to attend the BRICS Summit in New Delhi. According to TOI, his visit will last approximately 24 hours, beginning with his arrival on September 12.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Xi Jinping are scheduled to hold a bilateral meeting on Saturday evening. Important issues expected to be discussed include trade and the India-China border situation.

Xi is travelling with a 67-member government delegation, which includes senior Chinese officials such as Cai Qi and Chinese Foreign Minister Wang Yi. A separate business delegation is also expected to accompany the visit.

MCQs

5. After how many years is Xi Jinping visiting India?
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 7 years
D) 8 years

6. Xi Jinping is visiting India primarily to attend which event?
A) G20 Summit
B) BRICS Summit
C) SCO Summit
D) ASEAN Summit

7. How many members are reportedly included in Xi Jinping's government delegation?
A) 47
B) 57
C) 67
D) 77

8. Which two major issues are expected to feature in the Modi-Xi bilateral meeting?
A) Sports and tourism
B) Trade and border
C) Education and health
D) Agriculture and culture

RUSSIA PRESIDENT VLADIMIR PUTIN'S INDIA VISIT

Russian President Vladimir Putin arrived in India on September 11, 2026, ahead of the BRICS Summit. His arrival is significant for India-Russia diplomatic relations and for discussions on strategic cooperation.

Putin is scheduled to meet Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Discussions are expected to cover areas such as trade, defence and international political issues. His presence at the BRICS Summit also highlights Russia's continued participation in the grouping and its strategic relationship with India.

MCQs

9. Who arrived in India on September 11 ahead of the BRICS Summit?
A) Xi Jinping
B) Vladimir Putin
C) Emmanuel Macron
D) Joe Biden

10. Vladimir Putin is the President of which country?
A) Ukraine
B) Russia
C) Belarus
D) Kazakhstan

11. Putin is scheduled to meet which Indian leader?
A) Amit Shah
B) Narendra Modi
C) Rajnath Singh
D) S. Jaishankar

YUDH ABHYAS 2026
 
The 22nd edition of Exercise Yudh Abhyas 2026 has begun between the Indian Army and the United States Army.

The exercise started on September 10 and will continue until September 28, 2026. It is being conducted at Bikaner in Rajasthan and Auli in Uttarakhand.

One of the major highlights of this year's exercise is the use of counter-drone systems for the first time in the exercise. The training is designed to improve mutual understanding, operational coordination, trust and military capabilities between the two armies.

MCQs

12. Yudh Abhyas 2026 is conducted between India and which country?
A) Russia
B) France
C) United States
D) Japan

13. Which edition of Yudh Abhyas is being conducted in 2026?
A) 20th
B) 21st
C) 22nd
D) 23rd

14. When did Yudh Abhyas 2026 begin?
A) September 8
B) September 9
C) September 10
D) September 11

15. Yudh Abhyas 2026 will continue until:
A) September 20
B) September 25
C) September 28
D) September 30

16. Which technology is being used for the first time in Yudh Abhyas?
A) Nuclear technology
B) Counter-drone systems
C) Naval radar
D) Space weapons

GUJARAT ASSEMBLY – GST & LIVESTOCK FEED BILLS
 
The Gujarat Assembly has passed two important legislative measures: an amendment to the state's Goods and Services Tax (GST) Act and a bill concerning the regulation of livestock feed.

The GST amendment is intended to align Gujarat's tax provisions with recent changes at the national level. The livestock feed legislation focuses on regulating the quality and safety of animal feed, with the broader objective of supporting livestock health and food safety.

These measures reflect efforts to strengthen regulatory systems in taxation as well as agriculture and animal husbandry.

MCQs

17. Which state Assembly passed the GST amendment and livestock feed regulation measures?
A) Rajasthan
B) Gujarat
C) Maharashtra
D) Madhya Pradesh

18. The livestock feed bill primarily concerns:
A) Railway safety
B) Animal feed quality and regulation
C) School education
D) Industrial taxation

19. GST stands for:
A) General Sales Tax
B) Goods and Services Tax
C) Government Service Tariff
D) Goods Supply Tariff

GUJARAT SCHOOL EDUCATION AMENDMENT BILL 2026

The Gujarat Assembly has passed the Gujarat Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Amendment Bill, 2026. The legislation proposes tighter regulation of schools, higher penalties for violations and a statutory framework for appointing special educators for children with disabilities and special needs.

The bill distinguishes between grant-in-aid and fully private schools and gives the government greater authority over staff qualifications and recruitment provisions.

The penalties have been significantly increased. For example, illegal appointment of principals or teachers in aided schools can attract a penalty of up to ₹10 lakh. Running a secondary or higher secondary school without registration can result in imprisonment, a fine, or both.

MCQs

20. Which bill was passed by the Gujarat Assembly in 2026?
A) Gujarat Primary Education Bill
B) Gujarat Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Amendment Bill
C) Gujarat University Reform Bill
D) Gujarat School Transport Bill

21. The bill strengthens provisions for which category of educators?
A) Sports coaches
B) Special educators
C) Music teachers
D) Driving instructors

22. The maximum penalty mentioned for illegal appointment of principals or teachers in aided schools is:
A) ₹1 lakh
B) ₹5 lakh
C) ₹10 lakh
D) ₹20 lakh

BANK STRIKE IN GUJARAT

A three-day bank strike is scheduled to begin in Gujarat from September 11, 2026. According to TOI, around 5,400 bank branches are expected to remain closed during the strike.

The strike is expected to affect financial transactions across the state, with approximately ₹15,000 crore worth of transactions potentially impacted.

The development is significant for businesses and customers because branch-level banking services may be disrupted during the strike period.

MCQs

23. When is the three-day bank strike in Gujarat scheduled to begin?
A) September 9
B) September 10
C) September 11
D) September 12

24. Approximately how many bank branches are expected to remain shut?
A) 3,400
B) 4,500
C) 5,400
D) 6,400

25. Approximately how much transaction value could be affected?
A) ₹5,000 crore
B) ₹10,000 crore
C) ₹15,000 crore
D) ₹25,000 crore

MILLIE SHAH – PARA SHOOTING WORLD CHAMPIONSHIPS
 
Gujarat's Millie Shah, along with Paris Paralympics medallists Avani Lekhara and Mona Agarwal, created history at the Changwon 2026 WSPS World Championships in South Korea.

The Indian team won the country's first women's team gold medal in the 10m air rifle standing women SH1 category.

The team recorded a score of 1878.6. Millie Shah trains at Ahmedabad's Vijayi Bharat Academy (VBA), Sanskardham, under coach Jeevanlal Rai.

MCQs

26. Which Gujarati para shooter helped India win its first women's team gold at the Changwon World Championships?
A) Avani Lekhara
B) Millie Shah
C) Mona Agarwal
D) Jyothi Surekha

27. The Changwon 2026 WSPS World Championships are being held in which country?
A) Japan
B) China
C) South Korea
D) Australia

28. In which event did the Indian women's team win gold?
A) 50m rifle
B) 10m air rifle standing SH1
C) 25m pistol
D) Trap shooting

29. What was the Indian team's gold-medal winning score?
A) 1870.6
B) 1875.6
C) 1878.6
D) 1880.6

CEC GYANESH KUMAR IN AHMEDABAD
 
Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar visited Ahmedabad during a two-day visit to Gujarat. He addressed concerns related to the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) and deletion of names from electoral rolls.

He said that complaints related to deletion of names received during the SIR process would be resolved before the next Lok Sabha elections. He also explained the appeal process and emphasised that documents would be important for establishing eligibility and citizenship.

The CEC also defended the transparency of India's electoral system and described criticism of the Election Commission as part of democratic discourse.

MCQs

30. Who visited Ahmedabad during a two-day visit to Gujarat?
A) Rajiv Kumar
B) Gyanesh Kumar
C) Om Birla
D) Election Commissioner Arun Goel

31. SIR mentioned in the report is related to:
A) Tax assessment
B) Electoral roll revision
C) School registration
D) Railway recruitment

32. According to the CEC, which factor will be important in establishing eligibility and citizenship?
A) Social media accounts
B) Documents
C) Bank statements only
D) Driving licence only

GUJARAT PROHIBITION-RELATED CRIME
  
A TOI report highlights the scale of prohibition-related offences in Gujarat. According to the report, 30,859 cases were recorded in Ahmedabad and Surat, making prohibition-related offences one of the most prominent categories in the state's crime statistics.

The figures highlight the continuing challenge of enforcing Gujarat's prohibition laws and controlling illegal alcohol-related activities.

The issue is particularly significant because Gujarat has historically maintained a prohibition policy, making enforcement against illegal liquor networks an important law-and-order concern.

MCQs

33. Which two Gujarat cities accounted for 30,859 prohibition-related cases mentioned in the TOI report?
A) Ahmedabad and Vadodara
B) Surat and Rajkot
C) Ahmedabad and Surat
D) Gandhinagar and Rajkot

34. The cases discussed in the report were primarily related to:
A) Cybercrime
B) Prohibition violations
C) Traffic violations
D) Property disputes

35. Gujarat is widely known for maintaining which policy?
A) Complete tobacco prohibition
B) Prohibition on alcohol
C) Complete gambling prohibition only
D) Fuel prohibition


AHMEDABAD BOMB THREAT EMAILS
 
On September 11, several institutions in Ahmedabad, including 10 schools, three courts and the Gujarat Assembly, received bomb threat emails.

The threats triggered security responses, including evacuations and searches by bomb disposal teams. According to the TOI report, no explosives were found during the searches and the threats appeared to be hoaxes.

Cybercrime authorities were involved in tracing the source of the emails. The incident highlighted the importance of rapid security response and cyber investigation when threats are received by public institutions.

MCQs

36. How many Ahmedabad schools reportedly received bomb threat emails?
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 12

37. Besides schools, which institutions also received threats?
A) Three courts and the Gujarat Assembly

B) Two hospitals and the airport
C) Railway stations only
D) Universities only

38. What did searches reportedly find?
A) Explosives
B) Weapons
C) No explosives
D) Suspicious vehicles

GANDHINAGAR SLAB COLLAPSE
 
A slab and beam section at an under-construction commercial project in Kudasan, Gandhinagar, collapsed during construction work.

Twelve labourers were trapped but were rescued during an overnight operation. According to hospital authorities, all 12 workers were stable and out of danger. The workers included 10 men and two women, aged between 17 and 30 years.

The Road and Building Department began a structural assessment, while police examined CCTV footage and safety compliance. NDRF and SDRF teams also assisted in the rescue and debris-clearing operation.

MCQs

39. Where did the slab collapse take place?
A) Ahmedabad
B) Kudasan, Gandhinagar
C) Surat
D) Rajkot

40. How many labourers were trapped in the incident?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 15

41. Which departments/agencies were involved in rescue and investigation?
A) NDRF
B) SDRF
C) Road and Building Department
D) All of the above

INDIA–AFGHANISTAN T20I IN DELHI
 
The upcoming India-Afghanistan T20I in Delhi has attracted attention because it coincides with the BRICS Summit and associated security arrangements in the national capital.

The match is scheduled to be played at the Arun Jaitley Stadium on September 13. TOI reports that around 35,000 cricket fans are expected, creating additional traffic and security challenges alongside VVIP movements related to the BRICS Summit.

The combination of a major international summit and a high-profile cricket match makes traffic management particularly important for Delhi authorities.

MCQs

42. Where is the India-Afghanistan T20I scheduled to be played?
A) Wankhede Stadium
B) Arun Jaitley Stadium
C) Eden Gardens
D) Narendra Modi Stadium

43. On which date is the match scheduled?
A) September 11
B) September 12
C) September 13
D) September 14

44. Approximately how many spectators are expected?
A) 15,000
B) 25,000
C) 35,000
D) 50,000

BRICS POLITICAL DEBATE IN INDIA
 
Ahead of the BRICS Summit, a political debate has emerged in India over the benefits of India's participation in the grouping.

Senior Congress leader P. Chidambaram questioned whether recent BRICS meetings had produced tangible benefits for India. BJP leader Nitin Nabin criticised Chidambaram's remarks, arguing that such comments represented opposition criticism of India's rise and growth.

The debate reflects a broader question in foreign policy: how effectively can participation in multilateral forums translate into concrete economic, diplomatic and strategic gains for India?

MCQs

45. Which Congress leader questioned the tangible benefits of recent BRICS meetings?
A) Shashi Tharoor
B) P. Chidambaram
C) Mallikarjun Kharge
D) Jairam Ramesh

46. Who criticised Chidambaram's remarks from the BJP?
A) Nitin Nabin
B) Amit Shah
C) Rajnath Singh
D) Piyush Goyal

INDIA–CHINA ENGAGEMENT THROUGH BRICS
 
The upcoming BRICS Summit is also being viewed as an opportunity for India and China to improve bilateral engagement.

According to a TOI report, the summit could provide a platform for dialogue after years of border-related tensions. Apart from formal meetings, interactions on the sidelines of the summit could help both countries discuss economic cooperation, regional stability and wider geopolitical challenges.

The development is important because India and China are major Asian powers and influential members of BRICS. Improved communication between the two countries could have implications beyond bilateral relations and could also affect cooperation within the wider BRICS framework.

MCQs

47. The BRICS Summit is being viewed as an opportunity for greater engagement between India and which country?
A) Japan
B) China
C) Germany
D) Canada

48. Which issue has historically been a major source of tension between India and China?
A) Border disputes
B) Cricket
C) Tourism
D) Olympic participation

DELHI SCHOOLS & BRICS SECURITY ARRANGEMENTS
 
Delhi schools were scheduled to remain closed on September 11 because of security and traffic arrangements connected with the 18th BRICS Leaders' Summit.

The closure covered government, government-aided and recognised unaided private schools under the Delhi Directorate of Education. The decision was intended to help authorities manage the security requirements and traffic restrictions associated with the arrival of international leaders and delegations.

The situation illustrates how major international diplomatic events can temporarily affect everyday life in the host city.

MCQs

49. Why were schools in Delhi closed on September 11, 2026?
A) Heavy rainfall
B) BRICS Summit security and traffic arrangements
C) Teachers' examinations
D) National holiday

50. Which organisation's jurisdiction covered the schools mentioned in the report?
A) CBSE
B) Delhi Directorate of Education
C) UGC
D) NCERT

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Thursday, August 13, 2026

Advanced Computer Awareness – 50 MCQs with Answers & Explanations

August 13, 2026 0
Advanced Computer Awareness – 50 MCQs with Answers & Explanations
Advanced Computer Awareness – 50 MCQs with Answers & Explanations


Advanced Computer Awareness is an important topic for students preparing for SSC CGL, Banking, Railway, UPSC, State PSC, and other competitive examinations. This practice set focuses on conceptual and slightly tricky questions rather than basic computer definitions.

Advanced Computer Awareness MCQs

Q1. Which memory is located closest to the CPU and generally provides the fastest access?

A) RAM
B) Cache Memory
C) Hard Disk
D) Optical Disk

Explanation: Cache memory is located very close to the CPU and stores frequently used data and instructions to reduce access time.

Q2. Which protocol translates a domain name such as example.com into an IP address?


A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) DNS
D) SMTP

Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) maps human-readable domain names to IP addresses.

Q3. In the OSI model, routing is primarily associated with which layer?


A) Physical Layer
B) Data Link Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Transport Layer

Explanation: The Network Layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing packets between different networks.

Q4. Which of the following is an asymmetric cryptographic algorithm?


A) AES
B) DES
C) RSA
D) 3DES

Explanation: RSA uses a public key and a private key, making it an asymmetric encryption algorithm.

Q5. Which SQL command removes a table, including its structure, from a database?


A) DELETE
B) REMOVE
C) DROP
D) CLEAR

Explanation: DROP TABLE removes the table and its associated data. DELETE removes rows while leaving the table structure intact.

Q6. Which data structure follows the LIFO principle?


A) Queue
B) Stack
C) Tree
D) Graph

Explanation: LIFO means Last In, First Out. The most recently inserted element is removed first.

Q7. Which data structure normally follows the FIFO principle?


A) Stack
B) Queue
C) Tree
D) Heap

Explanation: FIFO means First In, First Out. The first element inserted is normally the first one removed.

Q8. What is the main purpose of virtual memory?


A) To increase processor clock speed
B) To extend apparent memory using secondary storage
C) To permanently store BIOS settings
D) To replace the CPU cache

Explanation: Virtual memory allows the operating system to use disk or SSD space as an extension of physical RAM.

Q9. Which CPU component performs arithmetic and logical operations?


A) Control Unit
B) ALU
C) Register Unit
D) Cache Controller

Explanation: The Arithmetic Logic Unit performs arithmetic calculations and logical comparisons.

Q10. Which component primarily coordinates and controls the execution of instructions?


A) ALU
B) Control Unit
C) RAM
D) SSD

Explanation: The Control Unit directs the CPU's operations and coordinates instruction execution.

Q11. Which attack attempts to make a service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from many sources?


A) Phishing
B) DDoS
C) Keylogging
D) Spoofing

Explanation: A Distributed Denial-of-Service attack uses multiple systems or sources to flood a target service with traffic.

Q12. Which of the following is an example of a relational database management system?


A) MySQL
B) Photoshop
C) Linux
D) Chrome

Explanation: MySQL is a relational database management system that organizes data into tables.

Q13. In a relational database, what uniquely identifies each row in a table?


A) Foreign Key
B) Primary Key
C) Candidate Field
D) Index Page

Explanation: A primary key uniquely identifies each record in a relational table.

Q14. Which SQL clause is used to filter rows before grouping?


A) ORDER BY
B) GROUP BY
C) WHERE
D) HAVING

Explanation: WHERE filters individual rows before grouping. HAVING is generally used to filter groups after GROUP BY.

Q15. Which SQL clause is generally used to filter grouped results?


A) WHERE
B) HAVING
C) SELECT
D) DISTINCT

Explanation: HAVING filters groups produced by GROUP BY, particularly when aggregate functions are involved.

Q16. Which protocol is commonly used for sending email?


A) SMTP
B) FTP
C) POP3
D) DNS

Explanation: SMTP, or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, is primarily used to send email between mail clients and servers and between mail servers.

Q17. Which protocol is commonly used to retrieve email while keeping messages synchronized on the server?


A) SMTP
B) IMAP
C) FTP
D) HTTP

Explanation: IMAP allows email to remain stored on the server and synchronizes messages across devices.

Q18. Which protocol is designed primarily for transferring files between computers?


A) FTP
B) SMTP
C) DNS
D) DHCP

Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol and is designed for transferring files over a network.

Q19. Which protocol automatically assigns IP configuration to devices on a network?


A) DNS
B) DHCP
C) FTP
D) ARP

Explanation: DHCP automatically provides network configuration such as IP addresses and related parameters to clients.

Q20. What is the primary purpose of ARP in an IPv4 local network?


A) Convert domain names into IP addresses
B) Map an IPv4 address to a MAC address
C) Encrypt network traffic
D) Assign IP addresses automatically

Explanation: ARP, or Address Resolution Protocol, is used to discover the MAC address associated with an IPv4 address on a local network.

Q21. Which device primarily operates at the Network Layer and forwards packets between networks?


A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Repeater

Explanation: Routers forward packets between different networks using logical IP addressing.

Q22. Which device traditionally broadcasts incoming data to all connected ports?


A) Router
B) Hub
C) Switch
D) Firewall

Explanation: A traditional hub repeats incoming signals to all ports rather than selectively forwarding frames.

Q23. Which addressing scheme is associated with the Data Link Layer?


A) IP Address
B) MAC Address
C) URL
D) Port Number

Explanation: MAC addresses identify network interfaces at the Data Link Layer.

Q24. Which OSI layer is responsible for end-to-end delivery and reliability?


A) Network Layer
B) Transport Layer
C) Session Layer
D) Physical Layer

Explanation: The Transport Layer provides mechanisms for end-to-end communication, including reliability and flow control when supported by the protocol.

Q25. Which protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable byte-stream delivery?


A) UDP
B) IP
C) TCP
D) ICMP

Explanation: TCP establishes a connection and provides reliable, ordered delivery of a byte stream.

Q26. Which protocol is connectionless and generally has lower overhead than TCP?


A) TCP
B) UDP
C) FTP
D) SMTP

Explanation: UDP is connectionless and does not provide TCP-style guaranteed delivery or ordering.

Q27. What does HTTPS add to HTTP?


A) File compression only
B) Encryption and authentication through TLS
C) Faster CPU processing
D) Additional storage

Explanation: HTTPS uses HTTP over TLS, helping protect data in transit and authenticate the server.

Q28. Which type of malware can encrypt files and demand payment for their recovery?


A) Spyware
B) Ransomware
C) Adware
D) Rootkit

Explanation: Ransomware commonly encrypts files or locks systems and demands payment from victims.

Q29. Which malware is designed primarily to secretly monitor a user's activities?


A) Spyware
B) Firewall
C) Worm
D) Compiler

Explanation: Spyware secretly collects information about a user's activity and may transmit it to another party.

Q30. What is the main purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?


A) Increase internet speed
B) Provide multiple independent authentication factors
C) Increase storage capacity
D) Compress files

Explanation: MFA requires two or more different types of authentication factors, improving account security.

Q31. Which of the following is an example of biometric authentication?


A) Password
B) PIN
C) Fingerprint
D) Username

Explanation: Fingerprints are biometric characteristics used to verify a person's identity.

Q32. Which type of encryption uses the same key for encryption and decryption?


A) Symmetric encryption
B) Asymmetric encryption
C) Hashing
D) Digital signature

Explanation: Symmetric encryption uses the same secret key, or corresponding secret material, for encryption and decryption.

Q33. Which of the following is primarily a hashing algorithm rather than an encryption algorithm?


A) AES
B) RSA
C) SHA-256
D) DES

Explanation: SHA-256 is a cryptographic hash function that produces a fixed-length digest.

Q34. What is the main property of a cryptographic hash function?


A) It is designed to be easily reversible
B) It produces a fixed-length digest from input data
C) It always compresses files
D) It assigns IP addresses

Explanation: A cryptographic hash function transforms input into a fixed-length digest and is designed to make reversing the process computationally infeasible.

Q35. Which technology is commonly used to create a secure encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network?


A) VPN
B) DNS
C) DHCP
D) FTP

Explanation: A Virtual Private Network can create an encrypted connection over an untrusted network such as the public internet.

Q36. What is the main purpose of a compiler?


A) Execute only one instruction
B) Translate source code into another form, typically machine code or an intermediate form
C) Manage network traffic
D) Store passwords

Explanation: A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into a form suitable for execution.

Q37. Which translator executes a program statement-by-statement rather than producing a complete machine-code program in one step?


A) Compiler
B) Interpreter
C) Assembler
D) Linker

Explanation: An interpreter generally reads and executes source instructions progressively rather than compiling the entire program ahead of execution.

Q38. Which language is commonly considered an interpreted, high-level programming language?


A) Python
B) Assembly
C) Machine Code
D) Binary

Explanation: Python is a high-level language commonly executed through an interpreter implementation, although modern implementations may also use compilation to intermediate forms.

Q39. Which of the following best describes an algorithm?


A) A physical computer component
B) A step-by-step procedure for solving a problem
C) A type of database
D) A network cable

Explanation: An algorithm is a finite sequence of well-defined steps designed to solve a problem or perform a task.

Q40. Which data structure is commonly used to implement recursion?


A) Stack
B) Queue
C) Graph
D) Hash table

Explanation: Function calls and recursive calls are commonly managed using a call stack.

Q41. Which sorting algorithm has an average-case time complexity of O(n log n)?


A) Bubble Sort
B) Selection Sort
C) Merge Sort
D) Linear Search

Explanation: Merge Sort has O(n log n) time complexity in its average and worst cases.

Q42. Binary search requires the data to be:


A) Randomly arranged
B) Sorted
C) Encrypted
D) Duplicated

Explanation: Binary search repeatedly divides a sorted search space into halves to locate an element efficiently.

Q43. What is the average time complexity of binary search?


A) O(n)
B) O(n²)
C) O(log n)
D) O(1)

Explanation: Binary search eliminates approximately half of the remaining search space at each step.

Q44. Which database property ensures that a transaction is treated as an indivisible unit?


A) Consistency
B) Atomicity
C) Isolation
D) Durability

Explanation: Atomicity means a transaction either completes fully or has no effect.

Q45. In the ACID properties of a database, what does “D” stand for?


A) Data
B) Dependency
C) Durability
D) Distribution

Explanation: Durability means committed transaction results should persist even after failures such as a system crash.

Q46. Which technology allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical computer?


A) Virtualization
B) Defragmentation
C) Encryption
D) Spooling

Explanation: Virtualization allows a physical machine's resources to be divided among multiple virtual environments.

Q47. Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources such as servers and storage?


A) SaaS
B) PaaS
C) IaaS
D) DaaS

Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service provides virtualized infrastructure resources such as computing, networking, and storage.

Q48. Which cloud model provides users with ready-to-use software over the internet?


A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) BIOS

Explanation: Software as a Service delivers software applications through the internet, usually without requiring users to manage the underlying infrastructure.

Q49. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a deadlock in an operating system?


A) All processes finish immediately
B) Processes wait indefinitely for resources held by one another
C) CPU temperature increases
D) Files are automatically deleted

Explanation: A deadlock can occur when processes are permanently waiting for resources held by other waiting processes.

Q50. Which statement about IPv4 and IPv6 is correct?


A) IPv4 uses 128-bit addresses
B) IPv6 uses 32-bit addresses
C) IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses and IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses
D) Both use 64-bit addresses

Explanation: IPv4 uses 32-bit addressing, while IPv6 expands the address space to 128 bits.

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Friday, August 7, 2026

SSC CGL Tier-I Similar Paper (Based on 12 Sept 2025 Shift-2 Pattern)

August 07, 2026 0
SSC CGL Tier-I Similar Paper (Based on 12 Sept 2025 Shift-2 Pattern)
SSC CGL Tier-I Similar Paper (Based on 12 Sept 2025 Shift-2 Pattern)


📑 Paper Index
  • General Instructions
  • Section A – General Intelligence & Reasoning (Questions 1–25)
  • Section B – General Awareness (Questions 26–50)
  • Section C – Quantitative Aptitude (Questions 51–75)
  • Section D – English Comprehension (Questions 76–100)
  • Answer Key
  • Detailed Solutions & Explanations
 Part-1: General Intelligence & Reasoning (Q1–Q25)
 
Q1. Find the missing number.
3 : 15 :: 7 : ?

A) 35
B) 49
C) 63
D) 56

Solution:
3 × 5 = 15
7 × 5 = 35

Q2. Choose the odd one out.

A) Square
B) Rectangle
C) Triangle
D) Circle

Solution:
Square, Rectangle, and Triangle are polygons with straight sides. Circle has no sides.

Q3. If APPLE = BQQMF, then MANGO = ?

A) NBOHP
B) NBMHP
C) NBOGP
D) OCPHQ

Solution:
Each letter is shifted by +1.

Q4. Complete the series.
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

A) 40
B) 42
C) 44
D) 46

Solution:
Differences are +4, +6, +8, +10
Next difference = +12
30 + 12 = 42

Q5. Which word cannot be formed from COMPETITION?

A) Motion
B) Option
C) Topic
D) Potion

Solution:
The letters required for Topic are not available in sufficient quantity.

Q6. Rahul walks 10 m North, then 10 m East, then 10 m South. In which direction is he from the starting point?

A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West

Solution:
He ends up 10 m east of the starting point.

Proper Solution (Step-by-Step):

Assume Rahul starts at point O (0,0)

1. Walks 10 m North
  • Position becomes (0,10)
2. Walks 10 m East
  • Position becomes (10,10)
3. Walks 10 m South
  • Position becomes (10,0)
Now compare the final position (10,0) with the starting point (0,0).
  • Rahul is 10 m to the East of the starting point.
Illustration:

Shortcut Trick (For Competitive Exams):
 
North (10 m) and South (10 m) cancel each other.
Only 10 m East remains.


Q7. Find the next term.

AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?

A) IR
B) IQ
C) JR
D) KR

Solution:
First letters: A, C, E, G → +2
Second letters: Z, X, V, T → −2

Q8. If DOG = 26, CAT = 24, then BAT = ?

A) 23
B) 24
C) 25
D) 22

Solution:
B = 2, A = 1, T = 20
2 + 1 + 20 = 23

Q9. Mirror image of 2F8L

A) L8F2
B) 2F8L
C) LF82
D) 8LF2

Exam Shortcut
Mirror Image = Order Reverse (Left ↔ Right)
Water Image = Top ↔ Bottom

Example:
 
ABCD → Mirror → DCBA
1234 → Mirror → 4321
2F8L → Mirror → L8F2

Q10. Select the related word.

Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?

A) School
B) Library
C) Office
D) Market

Q11. Find the odd one.

A) January
B) March
C) May
D) June

Solution:
January, March, and May have 31 days. June has 30 days.

Q12. Arrange alphabetically.

Mango
Apple
Banana
Orange

A) 2,3,1,4
B) 2,1,3,4
C) 3,2,1,4
D) 1,2,3,4

Step 1: Alphabetical Order (A to Z)
Apple (A)
Banana (B)
Mango (M)
Orange (O)
 
Step 2: Write their original numbers
Apple → 2
Banana → 3
Mango → 1
Orange → 4

So the correct sequence is: 2, 3, 1, 4

Q13. Find the missing letter.

A, D, G, J, ?

A) L
B) M
C) N
D) O

Solution:
Each letter increases by +3.

Q14. Which number is different?

A) 16
B) 25
C) 36
D) 48

Solution:
16, 25, and 36 are perfect squares.

Number Square?

16           4²

25           5²

36           6²

48 Not a perfect square


Q15. If PEN = 39, then BOOK = ?

A) 47
B) 43
C) 45
D) 50

Solution:
Step 1: Find the value of PEN

Use the alphabetical positions:
P = 16
E = 5
N = 14

PEN = 16 + 5 + 14 = 35

PEN = 39
Alphabet Value + 4
35 + 4 = 39

Step 2: Apply the same rule to BOOK

Alphabet values:
B = 2
O = 15
O = 15
K = 11

BOOK = 2 + 15 + 15 + 11 = 43

BOOK = 43
Alphabet Value + 4
43 + 4 = 47

Q16. Which figure completes the pattern?

A) Triangle
B) Circle
C) Square
D) Pentagon

Q17. Statement:

All pens are books. Some books are tables.

Conclusion:
I. Some pens are tables.
II. Some books are pens.

A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both
D) Neither

Q18. Find the next number.

5, 10, 20, 40, ?

A) 60
B) 80
C) 70
D) 90

Observe the pattern:
5 × 2 = 10
10 × 2 = 20
20 × 2 = 40
40 × 2 = 80

Each number is twice the previous number

Q19. If South becomes North-East, then East becomes?

A) South-East
B) North-West
C) South-West
D) North-East
 
Q20. Which pair is similar?

A) Fish : Water
B) Bird : Nest
C) Lion : Forest
D) All of these
 
Q21. Find the odd number.

8, 27, 64, 125, 150

A) 8
B) 27
C) 125
D) 150

Solution:
When you see numbers like 8, 27, 64, 125, immediately think of perfect cubes:
2³ = 8
3³ = 27
4³ = 64
5³ = 125

Since 150 does not fit this pattern, it is the odd one out.

Q22. If A = 1, B = 2, then CODE = ?

A) 27
B) 28
C) 29
D) 30

Solution:
C = 3, O = 15, D = 4, E = 5
3 + 15 + 4 + 5 = 27

Q23. Find the missing number.

6, 12, 24, 48, ?

A) 72
B) 84
C) 96
D) 108

Multiply the previous number by 2.

48 × 2 = 96

Q24. Which word is correctly arranged?

A) India : Asia
B) Gujarat : India
C) Ahmedabad : Gujarat
D) All of these
 
Q25. Find the next term.

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

A) 30
B) 35
C) 36
D) 49

Solution:
The series is the sequence of perfect squares:
1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6² = 36.

Part 2: General Awareness (Q26–Q50)

Q26. Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution"?

A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Patel

Solution: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee of the Constitution and is widely known as the Father of the Indian Constitution.

Q27. Which gas is most abundant in Earth's atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Hydrogen

Solution: The atmosphere contains about 78% Nitrogen and 21% Oxygen.

Q28. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the Right to Equality?

A) Articles 12–35
B) Articles 14–18
C) Articles 19–22
D) Articles 25–28

Solution:
The Right to Equality is one of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
It is covered under Articles 14 to 18.

Q29. The currency of Japan is:

A) Won
B) Yuan
C) Yen
D) Ringgit
 
Q30. Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"?

A) Venus
B) Mars
C) Mercury
D) Jupiter 

Solution:
Mars is called the "Red Planet" because its surface contains a large amount of iron oxide (rust), which gives it a reddish appearance.

Q31. Who discovered the sea route to India in 1498?

A) Christopher Columbus
B) Vasco da Gama
C) Marco Polo
D) Ferdinand Magellan
 
Q32. Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Pituitary
 
Q33. Which Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment?

A) Protect public property
B) Respect the National Flag
C) Provide education to children (6–14 years)
D) Develop scientific temper
 
Q34. "Jallianwala Bagh Massacre" took place in:

A) 1915
B) 1917
C) 1919
D) 1922
 
Q35. Which vitamin is produced in the human body through sunlight?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin K
 
Q36. Which river is known as the "Sorrow of Bihar"?

A) Ganga
B) Kosi
C) Yamuna
D) Son
 
Q37. The headquarters of ISRO is located in:

A) Hyderabad
B) Bengaluru
C) Chennai
D) New Delhi
 
Q38. Which Mughal emperor built the Red Fort?

A) Akbar
B) Babur
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangzeb
 
Q39. Which instrument measures atmospheric pressure?

A) Thermometer
B) Barometer
C) Hygrometer
D) Ammeter

Q40. Which State is known as the "Spice Garden of India"?

A) Tamil Nadu
B) Kerala
C) Karnataka
D) Assam

Q41. The SI unit of electric current is:

A) Volt
B) Ampere
C) Ohm
D) Watt
 
Q42. Who wrote the book "Discovery of India"?

A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Subhas Chandra Bose
D) Rabindranath Tagore

Q43. Which Indian classical dance originated in Kerala?

A) Bharatanatyam
B) Kathak
C) Kathakali
D) Odissi

Q44. RBI was established in:

A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1947
D) 1950

Q45. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?

A) A+
B) B+
C) O−
D) AB+

Q46. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9

Solution: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.

Q47. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains the list of recognized languages?

A) Sixth Schedule
B) Seventh Schedule
C) Eighth Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule

Q48. Which Indian scientist is known as the "Missile Man of India"?

A) Homi Bhabha
B) Vikram Sarabhai
C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
D) C. V. Raman
 
Q49. The headquarters of UNESCO is in:

A) London
B) New York
C) Paris
D) Geneva

Q50. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?

A) Iron
B) Copper
C) Mercury
D) Aluminium

Part 3: Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–Q75)

Q51. What is 25% of 640?

A) 140
B) 150
C) 160
D) 170

Solution:
25% = 1/4
640 ÷ 4 = 160

Shortcut: 25% means divide by 4.

Q52. A shopkeeper gives 10% discount on a product marked at ₹800. Find the selling price.


A) ₹700
B) ₹720
C) ₹740
D) ₹760

Solution:
Discount = 10% of 800 = ₹80
Selling Price = 800 − 80 = ₹720

Q53. The average of 15, 20, 25, 30, 35 is:

A) 24
B) 25
C) 26
D) 27

Solution:
Sum = 15 + 20 + 25 + 30 + 35 = 125
Average = 125 ÷ 5 = 25

Q54. Find the HCF of 24 and 36.


A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 18
 
Q55. A train travels 360 km in 6 hours. Its speed is:

A) 50 km/h
B) 55 km/h
C) 60 km/h
D) 65 km/h

Solution:
Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 360 ÷ 6 = 60 km/h

Q56. If x = 8, then 3x + 5 = ?


A) 27
B) 28
C) 29
D) 30
 
Q57. A sum doubles in 8 years at simple interest. The rate of interest is:

A) 10%
B) 12.5%
C) 15%
D) 8%

Solution:
SI = Principal
R = (100 × 1) ÷ 8 = 12.5%

Q58. The value of √784 is:


A) 26
B) 27
C) 28
D) 29
 
Q59. A man buys an article for ₹500 and sells it for ₹575. Profit percentage is:

A) 10%
B) 12%
C) 15%
D) 18%
 
Q60. Find the value of:
18 × 5 − 24

A) 64
B) 66
C) 68
D) 70
 
Q61. The ratio 12 : 18 in simplest form is:

A) 2 : 3
B) 3 : 4
C) 4 : 5
D) 5 : 6
 
Q62. A can complete a work in 12 days. His one day's work is:

A) 1/10
B) 1/12
C) 1/14
D) 1/16
 
Q63. Find the missing number:
4, 9, 16, 25, ?

A) 30
B) 34
C) 36
D) 49
 
Q64. The perimeter of a square is 48 cm. Find its side.

A) 10 cm
B) 11 cm
C) 12 cm
D) 13 cm
 
Q65. Convert 0.75 into a fraction.

A) 2/5
B) 3/4
C) 4/5
D) 5/6
 
Q66. If 5 pens cost ₹150, then 8 pens will cost:

A) ₹220
B) ₹230
C) ₹240
D) ₹250
 
Q67. A number is increased by 20%. The new number is 360. Find the original number.

A) 280
B) 290
C) 300
D) 320

Solution:
Original = 360 × 100 ÷ 120 = 300

Q68. The LCM of 8 and 12 is:


A) 16
B) 20
C) 24
D) 48
 
Q69. A car covers 150 km in 3 hours. Speed is:

A) 45 km/h
B) 50 km/h
C) 55 km/h
D) 60 km/h
 
Q70. If 2x = 18, then x = ?

A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 12
 
Q71. The area of a rectangle of length 15 cm and breadth 8 cm is:

A) 110 cm²
B) 115 cm²
C) 120 cm²
D) 125 cm²
 
Q72. Find the simple interest on ₹4,000 at 5% per annum for 2 years.

A) ₹300
B) ₹350
C) ₹400
D) ₹450
 
Q73. A batsman scores 45, 60, 55, 70 and 70 runs. His average score is:

A) 58
B) 59
C) 60
D) 61

Solution:
Total = 45 + 60 + 55 + 70 + 70 = 300
Average = 300 ÷ 5 = 60

Q74. What is 35% of 200?


A) 60
B) 65
C) 70
D) 75
 
Q75. If the cost price of an article is ₹800 and it is sold at 10% profit, find the selling price.

A) ₹860
B) ₹870
C) ₹880
D) ₹890

Solution:
Selling Price = 800 + (10% of 800) = 800 + 80 = ₹880

Part 4: English Comprehension (Q76–Q100)

Q76. Choose the correctly spelled word.

A) Accomodation
B) Accommodation
C) Acommodation
D) Accommudation

Explanation: Accommodation is the correct spelling.

Q77. Choose the synonym of "Rapid".

A) Slow
B) Fast
C) Weak
D) Quiet
 
Q78. Choose the antonym of "Ancient".

A) Old
B) Modern
C) Historic
D) Traditional
 
Q79. Fill in the blank.
She _____ to school every day.

A) go
B) goes
C) going
D) gone
 
Q80. Choose the correct passive voice.
They are writing a letter.

A) A letter is written by them.
B) A letter was written by them.
C) A letter is being written by them.
D) A letter has been written by them.
 
Q81. Choose the correct indirect speech.
He said, "I am busy."

A) He said that I am busy.
B) He said that he was busy.
C) He says that he was busy.
D) He told I was busy.
 
Q82. Fill in the blank.
The sun _____ in the east.

A) rise
B) rises
C) rising
D) rose
 
Q83. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.

A) What is your name.
B) What is your name?
C) What, is your name?
D) What is, your name?
 
Q84. Choose the one-word substitution.
One who cannot read or write

A) Literate
B) Scholar
C) Illiterate
D) Educated
 
Q85. Choose the idiom meaning of "Hit the nail on the head."

A) Miss the point
B) Speak exactly right
C) Work hard
D) Hit someone
 
Q86. Fill in the blank.
He is good _____ Mathematics.

A) in
B) on
C) at
D) for
 
Q87. Choose the correct article.
He bought _____ umbrella.

A) a
B) an
C) the
D) no article
 
Q88. Choose the synonym of "Brave."

A) Cowardly
B) Bold
C) Weak
D) Timid
 
Q89. Choose the antonym of "Victory."

A) Success
B) Triumph
C) Defeat
D) Achievement
 
Q90. Spot the error.

He do not know the answer.

A) He
B) do not
C) know
D) the answer

Correct Sentence: He does not know the answer.

Q91. Fill in the blank.
Neither Ram nor his friends _____ present.

A) is
B) are
C) was
D) has

Rule: With neither...nor, the verb agrees with the subject nearest to it (friends).

Q92. Choose the correct spelling.

A) Government
B) Goverment
C) Government
D) Govenment
 
Q93. One-word substitution.
A person who writes poems

A) Novelist
B) Poet
C) Author
D) Editor
 
Q94. Fill in the blank.
The train arrived _____ time.

A) on
B) at
C) in
D) for
 
Q95. Choose the correctly spelled word.

A) Enviroment
B) Environment
C) Environmant
D) Enviornment
 
Read the Passage and Answer Q96–Q100

Passage:
Riya loves reading books. She visits the library every Sunday and borrows two books. Reading helps her improve her vocabulary and knowledge. She also shares interesting stories with her friends.

Q96. Where does Riya go every Sunday?

A) School
B) Market
C) Library
D) Park
 
Q97. How many books does she borrow?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
 
Q98. Reading improves her:

A) Health
B) Vocabulary and knowledge
C) Singing
D) Drawing
 
Q99. Whom does she share stories with?

A) Teachers
B) Parents
C) Friends
D) Neighbours
 
Q100. Choose the most suitable title.

A) A School Trip
B) Riya's Reading Habit
C) My Garden
D) Sports Day

Important Note: This is a practice paper created to closely resemble the SSC CGL Tier-I examination pattern and difficulty level observed in the 12 September 2025 Shift-2 exam. It is not the official SSC question paper or an exact memory-based paper.

The questions have been prepared by analyzing the latest SSC CGL syllabus, previous years' papers, and recent exam trends. The paper is designed to help aspirants understand the type of questions, improve speed and accuracy, and assess their preparation.