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Thursday, December 22, 2022

Principles Of Management Mcqs

December 22, 2022 0
Principles Of Management Mcqs
S.Y B.COM
SEMESTER: 3

PRINCIPLES OF MANAGEMENT
POM 
18 JANUARY 2022

1. 'Each group of activities with the same objective must have one head and one plan'... is known as ____________.

A. Unity of command
B. Unity of Direction 
C. Order
D  Standardisation

2. Tactical Planning is also known as ___________.

A. Strategic planning
B. Operational planning
C. Corporate planning
D. Proactive planning

3. Relationship among Authority, Responsibility, Accountability and Reporting system of an organisation is known as ____________.

A. Organisation chart
B. Organisation structure
C. Span Of management
D. Delegation of Authority

4. Organising process includes one of the following: __________.

A. Grouping of activities
B. Prescribing disciplinary action
C. Determining objectives
D. Prescribing alternatives

5. Contribution on "Management Skills" is made by... 

A. Robert Kartz
B. Mintzberg
C. Peter Drucker
D. Robbins

6. Who among the following contribute concept of "Managerial Roles"?

A. Henry fayol
B. Robert Kartz
C. Mintzberg
D. F.W.Taylor

7. ___________ is concerned with macro aspect relating to decision with broad
implications for a large segment of the society.

A. Social responsibility
B. Business Ethics
C. Business Management
D. Business Environment

8. Which among the following is not comes under the main focus of TQM?

A. Business Ethics
B. Customer Satisfaction
C. Employee Involvement
D. Continuous Improvement

9. Need hierarchy theory of motivation has been given by __________. 

A. Maslow
B. Fayol
C. Taylor
D. Koontz

10. Controlling function finds out how far __________ deviates from standards.

A. Actual performance
B. Improvement
C. Corrective actions
D. Cost

11. Which among the following is not an appropriate principle in regard to Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A. Primary responsibility for Quality rest with Top Management
B. Quality requires Continuous improvement
C. Quality is concern with Empowerment of Employees
D. Quality to be ensured with inspection of finished product and taking corrective measures

12. Which of the following technique puts an attempt to bring balance between 'Cost of Idle Time' and 'Cost of Waiting Line'?

A  PERT
B. Queuing theory
C. Decision Tree Analysis
D. Game Theory

13. Management is considered as -

A. Art only
B. Profession
C. Pure science
D. Psudo science

14. Quality Circle is a group of __________.

A. Operatives
B. Supervisors
C. Management Trainee
D. Top management

15. Which among the following is not a
dysfunctional aspect of conflict in an
organisation?

A. Disequilibrium in Organisation
B. Stress and Tension
C. Diversion of Energy
D. Group Cohesion

16. _________ is "the critical evaluation of plans, activities, and results, thereby providing information for the future action".

A. Strategic control
B. Operational Control
C. Tactical Control
D. Preventive control

17. Which among the following is not the correct statement in regard to Total Quality Management (TQM)?

A. It has intense locus on the customers
B. It is concern with continuous improvement
C. It is concern with Empowerment of Employees
D. It concentrates on stringent control over employees

18. As a person moves upward which of the nature of skill loses its application in relative manner as per Robert Kartz's 'Management skill' approach?

A. Conceptual skill
B. Technical Skill
C. Decision making skill
D. Interpersonal skill

19. Which among the following Theory of Leadership has identify major functions performed by leaders in a group?

A. Charismatic Theory
B. Trait Theory
C. Behavioural theory
D. Contingency Theory

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Friday, December 16, 2022

Audit and assurance Mcqs

December 16, 2022 0
Audit and assurance Mcqs
T.Y  B.COM 
SEMESTER - 5  

AUDIT AND ASSURANCE
MCQs - 30 Nov 2021 

1. _________ deals with overall objectives of the Independent Auditor and conduct of an Audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing.

A. SA 240 
B. SA 200  
C. SA 230 
D. SA 500  

2. Which of the following is the disadvantage of audit programme? 

A. Audit programme helps in distribution of work amongst audit assistants as per their capabilities. 
B. Audit programme is mechanical in nature hence audit will be completed within time available. 
C. Audit program acts as a evidence against change of negligence. 
D. Audit programme helps in covering all the areas where audit is required. 

3. The concept of 'True and Fair view' is fundamental concept of auditing and Auditor is required to examine and ensure that 
I. Assets are neither undervalued nor overvalued 
II. No material liabilities are omitted 
III. The charge, if any, on assets are disclosed 
IV. Accounting policies have been followed consistently

A. I, II, III 
B. I, II, III, IV  
C. I, III, IV
D.  II, III, IV

4. Permanent working paper file contains __________ while maintaining the audit documentation as per standard on auditing.

A. copies of management letters 
B. audit programme 
C. analysis of transaction and balances under audit 
D. Analysis of significant ratios and trends  
 
5._________________audit is an examination of financial records to assess the correctness of calculation of taxable profit, to ensure compliance with provisions of the Income tax Act,1961 and also to ensure fulfilment of conditions for claiming deduction under the said Act. 

A. Cost  
B. Tax 
C. Social 
D. Management 

6. The Income tax Act, 1961 provides, for compulsory tax audit for an assessee carrying on profession where gross receipts exceeds _______ in the previous year.  

A. Rs. 5 crores 
B. Rs. 1 crores 
C. Rs. 1 crores 
D. Rs. 50 Lakhs 

7. Generally, while performance financial audit, for an auditor _________ audit evidences are more reliable compared to _________ audit evidences. 

A. internal, external 
B. external, internal 
C. Oral, documentary 
D. sufficient, appropriate 

8. Which of the following is not the method of obtaining the audit evidence?

A. Inquiry 
B. Accounting Statistics 
C. Recalculation 
D. Reperformance 

9. __________ is the method of obtaining the audit evidence by looking the process or procedure        to be carried out for recording the transactions or events which generally follows in the __________ type of audit evidence. 

A. Inspection, documentary 
B. Inquiry, documentary 
C. Observation, visual sayd
D. Confirmation, documentary 

10. The auditor shall _________ the audit procedures that are appropriate in the circumstances for the purpose of obtaining sufficient and appropriate audit evidence.

A. identify 
B. inquire into sayad
C. design and perform 
D. design 

11. From the following, which of the statement is not true?

A. Manipulation of accounts excludes the recording of transactions/events with the purpose of window dressing.
B. Teaming and leading method is one kind of fraud for misappropriation of cash.
C. Inflating payment means showing excess payment than actual.
D. Secrete reserve is created with the intension of reducing the tax liabilities. 

12. Which of the following is not included in the current working paper file in case of an auditor appointed for the private limited company? 

A. Memorandum and Articles of Association 
B. Bank reconciliation statement 
C. Annual appointment of auditor 
D. Methods of review of internal control

13. Which of the following is the disadvantage of audit programme? 

A. Audit programme helps in distribution of work amongst audit assistants as per their capabilities. 
B. Audit programme is mechanical in nature hence audit will be completed within time available. 
C. Audit program acts as a evidence against change of negligence. 
D. Audit programme helps in covering all the areas where audit is required. 

14. Which of the following standard on auditing (SA) belongs to Audit Documentation?

A. SA 500
B. SA 230
C. SA 300
D. SA 200

15. Which of the following statements is/are true or false for audit programme? 
I. One Audit programme is not suitable for all entities. 
II. Generally audit programme should contain minimum procedures. 
III. An audit programme consists of a series of verification procedures to be applied 
IV. There is no need to review the audit programme periodically.

A. True, False, True, False 
B. True, True, True, False 
C. False, False, True, False 
D. True, True, True, True

16. Working papers can support the __________ in case the _________ files a suit for negligence in the performance of the audit.

A. client, auditor
B. management, independent auditor
C. company, auditor
D. auditor, client

17. ________ is concerned with designing optimised audit approaches that seek to achieve the necessary audit assurance at the lowest cost within the constraints of the information available.

A. Audit programme
B. Compliance procedures
C. Substantives procedure
D. Audit strategy

18. Which of the following aspect is not covered in audit of financial statements:

A. Examination of Accounting System & Internal Control
B. Vouching of the transactions
C. Verification of Assets & Liabilities
D. Design, implementation and maintenance of Internal Control System.

19. The risk of the _________ for not detecting a material misstatement resulting from management fraud is greater than for employee fraud, because management is frequently in a position to manipulate accounting records, present fraudulent financial information.

A. management 
B. Chief Finance Officer 
C. those charged with governance 
D. auditor 

20. Standards on Assurance Engagements are to be applied in 

A. the audit of historical financial information. 
B. the review of historical financial information. 
C. assurance engagements, engagements dealing with subject matter other than historical financial information. 
D. engagements involving application of agreed upon procedures to information and other related services such as compilation engagements.

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Thursday, November 17, 2022

Elements of Economic Theory Mcqs

November 17, 2022 0
Elements of Economic Theory Mcqs
F.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 1

ELEMENTS OF ECONOMIC THEORY
(EET)
MCQS - 5 March 2022

1. Which of the following is correct in the context of Marshallian Utility analysis?

A. utility is cardinal
B. utility is ordinal
C. marginal utility of money changes with changes in amount of money with the consumer 
D. utility can only be ranked but not measured

2. Which one is the internal factor affecting pricing policy?

A. Level of Competition in Market
B. Managerial Policy 
C. Business Environment
D. Government Tax policy 

3. In the full cost pricing, which cost is the base of the price?

A. marginal cost
B. average variable cost
C. average cost
D. total cost 

4. Which of these is not a feature of services?

A. lacks physical substance
B. cannot be touched or seen
C. can be experienced
D. is tangible in nature 

5. When the value of income elasticity of demand is higher, the income-demand curve will be

A. flatter 
B. steeper
C. vertical
D. horizontal

6. Which of these is not a feature of perfect competition?

A. homogeneous product
B. free entry and exit
C. seller is price maker 
D. perfect information

7. Mobile phones becoming as important as food, clothing and shelter implies that

A. wants differ in intensity
B. wants multiply with civilization 
C. wants are insatiable
D. wants are subjective in nature

8. Statement I: In economic theory, normal profits form a part of business firm's cost of production. 
Statement II: An accountant includes only explicit costs in cost calculation

A. both statements are true
B. both statements are false
C. statement I is true, statement II is false 
D. statement I is false, statement Il is true

9. Which of these is a central problem of an economy?

A. How to maximize profits
B. What to produce? 
C. How to maximize satisfaction
D. When to produce?

10. Which of these statements is true?

A. the total fixed cost curve is a vertical straight line with output measured on the x axis
B. the average fixed cost curve is a U shaped
C. the total fixed cost is upward sloping straight line
D. the average cost curve is U shaped 

11. Specific demand function is one which relates

A. quantity demanded to the price of the good, prices of related goods income of the consumer, tastes and preferences of the consumer, etc. 
B. quantity demanded to the price of the good
C. quantity demanded of a good to specific market only
D. quantity demanded of a good to specific consumer only

12. Which of these statements is correct?

A. when the long run average cost curve is falling, it will cut through the short run average cost curves
B. when the plant size is optimum, the long run average cost curve will cut the short run average cost curve
C. when the plant size is optimum, the minimum point of one short run average cost curve and of the long run average cost curve will be common
D. long run average curve will intersect the lowest short run average cost curve 

13. Following are the three time periods referred to with reference to the determination of market price except:

A. market period
B. short run 
C. medium run
D. long run

14. Jacob Viner defined economics as

A. study of scarcity
B. study of wealth
C. what economists do 
D. study of welfare

15. In the Robbins' definition of Economics, the term 'means' refers to

A. wants
B. alternative uses
C. meaning
D. resources 

16. Which of these statements is true?

A. In perfect competition, the total revenue curve is linear in nature 
B. In imperfect competition, the total revenue curve is linear in nature
C. In imperfect market, there are no restrictions on entry/exit
D. in perfectly competitive market, information is hard to get

17. Which definition of economics gives due importance to the element of time?

A. wealth definition
B. welfare definition
C. growth definition  
D. scarcity definition

18. Which of these is incorrect with reference to the algebraic demand function?

A. the price coefficient is positive
B. price appears on the left hand side of the equation
C. price appears on the right hand side of the equation 
D. quantity demand appears on the right hand side of the equation

19. When the price of good X increased from Rs.600 to Rs.650, its demand decreased from 200 units to 188 units. What is its price elasticity of demand?

A. 0.72
B. 0.88
C. 0.56 
D. 0.65

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Saturday, October 1, 2022

Structure & Process of Business Mcqs

October 01, 2022 0
Structure & Process of Business Mcqs
F.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 1
 

STRUCTURE & PROCESS OF BUSINESS
(SPB)
MCQS: UNIT 1

1. One of the social objective of business is

(a) Avoidance of customers
(b) Development of skilled personnel’s
(c) Fair dealing with employees
(d) Supply of desired quality of goods

2. For the success of business all the marketing plans and policies must be

(a) Objective oriented
(b) Nation oriented
(c) Customer oriented
(d) Vision oriented

3. Business is a human activity directed towards

(a) Acquisition of social stability
(b) Acquisition of wealth
(c) Acquisition of profit
(d) Acquisition of market

4. As a result of industrial revolution there was a transformation from

(a) Simple to capitalist economy
(b) Natural to commercial economy
(c) Natural to capitalist economy
(d) Socialist to capitalist economy

5. Which of the following is part of Human Occupation ?

(a) Professions
(b) Business
(c) Employment
(d) All of the above

6. Assembly line activities are also kind of ______.

(a) Construction industries
(b) Commerce
(c) Manufacturing industries
(d) Trade

7. Interest cannot be transferred in case of _________.

(a) Professions
(b) Business
(c) Employment
(d) None of these

8. Individual Risk is a part of Activities in case of _________.

(a) Professions
(b) Business
(c) Employment
(d) a and b both

9. Foreign trade includes ______.

(a) Import trade
(b) Export trade
(c) Entrepot trade
(d) All of the above

10. A refrigerator operating in a chemist’s shop is an example of

(a) Free good
(b) Final good
(c) Intermediate good
(d) Consumers good

11. What is an economic activity ?

(a) Activity undertaken in expectation of economic return
(b) Activity undertaken for providing service
(c) Activity undertaken for services and economic return
(d) Activity undertaken as a result of love and affection.

12. What is a non-economic activity ?

(a) Activity done in expectation of earning
(b) Activity done in expectation of economic return
(c) Activity done for social services
(d) Activity done in expectation of return and services

13. How many types of economic activities are there ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

14. Business is done with ______

(a) Profit objective
(b) Service motive
(c) Fee objective
(d) Remuneration motive

15. Profession is done with ______

(a) Profit objective
(b) Service motive
(c) Fee objective
(d) Remuneration motive

16. From the following, which characteristic is not of the business ?

(a) Profit objective
(b) Risk
(c) Definite return
(d) Economic activity

17. In which field, India has got the place from the following ?

(a) Transportation
(b) Insurance
(c) Medicine
(d) Information

18. From the following, which activity is not economic activity ?

(a) Business Activity
(b) Lawyer e
(c) Social Worker
(d) Doctor

19. From the following which activity is out side the scope of Human Occupation ?

(a) The Sachin Tendulkar, playing international cricket.
(b) Anna’s hunger strike
(c) Mukesh Ambani coming to IPCL
(d) Dr. Anand going to his hospital

20. By which name the production activity known ?

(a) Industry
(b) Business
(c) Trade
(d) Employment

21. Which is trade facilitating services ?

(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Industry
(d) Profession

22. What is meant by the exchange of product in lieu of finance ?

(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Industry
(d) Profession

23. How many types of trade are there ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four 

24. What is main characteristics of trade ?

(a) Buyer
(b) Seller
(c) Purchase seller
(d) Agent

25. Purchase and sale for the purpose of profit means ______.

(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Industry
(d) Profession

26. Industry dong the process on the material obtained from the nature means ______.

(a) Modern industry
(b) Primary industry
(c) Labour oriented
(d) Secondary industry

27. Which of the following is or are the economic objective of business ?

(a) Profit
(b) Creation of customer
(c) Innovation
(d) All of these

28. Where did the industrial revolution start ?

(a) England
(b) USA
(c) Germany
(d) India

29. Which is dependent economic activity ?

(a) Business
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) Service

30. Industrial revolution refers to a series of remarkable change in ______ industries during 1760 to 1830.

(a) British Industries
(b) American Industries
(c) African Industries
(d) Asian Industries 

31. Before industrial revolution, there was an existence of ______ economy.

(a) Capitalist
(b) National
(c) Socialist
(d) Political

32. A business enterprise is an ______ entity.

(a) Commercial
(b) Social
(c) Natural
(d) Organic

33. Genetic industries are relocated with ______ organisms.

(a) Living
(b) Static
(c) Mechanical
(d) Chemical

34. ______ are those occupations which involve the rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature.

(a) Business
(b) Employment
(c) Professions
(d) Adventure

35. The marketing plans and policies of today are ______ centered and not ______ centered.

(a) Customer, Product
(b) Product, Customer
(c) Profit, Product
(d) Profit, Customer 

36. Which of the following is / are true about industrial revolution. 

(i) Money become supreme
(ii) Personal skill was given more importance
(iii) Concentration of factors of production in few hands
(iv) Slums area

(a) All above
(b) Only (i) & (iv)
(c) Only (i) & (ii)
(d) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)

37. Industry mean that part of business activity which is concerned with

(i) Raising
(ii) Production
(iii) Processing
(iv) Fabrication of products 

(a) All above
(b) Only (i), (ii) & (iii) a
(c) None of the above
(d) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)

38. It is the duty of every business to satisfy the national needs by

(i) Production according to national priorities
(ii) Development of small entrepreneurs
(iii) Fair deal to employees
(iv) Creation of customers

(a) Only (i) & (ii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) All above
(d) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)

39. Which of the followings is /are not the essentials of business

(i) Location, layout and size
(ii) Planning
(iii) Family planning
(iv) Independent department

(a) only (i)
(b) only (i), (ii) & (iii)
(c) only (iii) & (iv)
(d) only (iii)

40. ________ Involves transfer, sale or exchange of goods and services to satisfy the needs of customers.

(a) Business
(b) Employment
(c) Professions
(d) Adventure

41. It is ______ obligation of business not to indulge in malpractices such as hoarding and black marketing.

(a) Organic
(b) Social
(c) National
(d) Economic

42. The ______ objective of business arises from the expectations of the human beings performing business operations.

(a) Human
(b) National
(c) Social
(d) Organic

43. The ______ was a phenomenon which radically altered the whole system of procedure.

(a) Market Revolution
(b) Product Revolution
(c) Country Revolution
(d) Industrial Revolution

44. The business cycles are also known as

(a) Trade Cycle
(b) Depression Cycles
(c) Prosperity cycles
(d) Waste Cycles

45. The intangible and invisible goods supplied by business concerns which can not be stored by the consumer is known as :

(a) Producers goods
(b) Consumer goods
(c) Services
(d) None of the above

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Sunday, August 14, 2022

Business English & Communication Mcqs

August 14, 2022 0
Business English & Communication Mcqs
F.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 1

BUSINESS ENGLISH & COMMUNICATION
(BEC)
MCQS: 03-03-2022

For more Mcqs in this Subject click here: 


1. Choose from the following options the one word that will fit between- Mint and Mouse, using dictionary Skills

A. Mister 
B. Must
C. Much
D. Met

2. Choose from the following options one of the language functions.

A. Directive Function 
B. Assertive Function
C. Diplomatic Function
D. Coercive Function

3. Choose from the following options the synonym of the word-hurry.

A. Cover
B. Employ
C. Obtain
D. Hasten 

4. Identify the most appropriate pair from the following options that indicates types of Feedback.

A. Large and small 
B. Direct and indirect
C. High and low
D. Pre and post

5. Identify the verb in the following sentence: He returned from Germany last weekend.

A. Returned
B. he
C. Germany
D. Weekend

6. Fill in the blank: Formation of a new word by taking the initial of every word in a title or phrase is called __________.

A. Acronym
B. Homonym
C. Homophone
D. Homograph

7. What would you call the words which have the same spelling but, different meanings and pronunciations?

A. Homonyms
B. Homophones
C. Homostars
D. Homographs  

8. Fill in the blank: ________ decodes the message.

A. Sender  
B. Receiver 
C. Channel
D. Author 

9. Choose from the following options an example of intrapersonal communication.

A. Self Talk 
B. Meeting
C. Interview 
D. Dialogue

10. Fill in the blank: _________ comes from the Greek word haphe meaning touch.

A. Haptics 
B. Proxamics
C. Chronomics
D. Kinesics

11. Fill in the blank: Unwillingness to communicate on the part of subordinates is an example of _________ barrier.

A. Personal Barrier
B. Physical Barrier
C. Organisational Barrier
D. Semantic Barrier

12. The word dialect come from the ancient Greek word __________.

A. Dialektos 
B. Dial
C. Discuss
D. Discourse

13. "Why don't you come tomorrow ...Kal aa jao na...." is an example of __________.

A. Code mixing
B. Code switching 
C. Creole
D. Pidgin

14. Identify from the following options one of the factors that may become a Biological Barrier.

A. Migraine  
B. Lack of Focus
C. Personality Style
D. Attitude

15. Choose a blended word from the following options.

A. Compete
B. Brunch 
C. Break
D. Brisk

16. Fill in the blank: barriers are attributed to a person's health and fitness.

A. Physiological 
B. Psychological
C. Physical
D. Semantic

17. Choose a derived word from the following options.

A. Zigzag
B. Ticktock
C. Happiness 
D. Smog

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Friday, May 13, 2022

Developing Communication Skills in English Mcqs

May 13, 2022 0
Developing Communication Skills in English Mcqs
F.Y B.COM
SEMESTER 1

DEVELOPING COMMUNICATION SKILLS IN ENGLISH
(DCSE)
MCQS: 24-2-2020

For more Mcqs in this Subject click here:


1. Identify from the options given below the type of listening based on the participation of receiver.

A. Sensitive Listening 
B. Listening for specific information
C. Listening for inference 
D. Emphatic Listening

2. What is the one word for a speech presented by an individual? 

A. Dialect 
B. Dialogue 
C. Monolith 
D. Monologue

3. Identify from the options given below, the word in which consonant sound becomes silent during pronunciation.

A. 'b' as in climb
B. 'g' as in brag
C. 'p' as in gypsy 
D. 'a' as in bare

4. Identify from the given options the one sentence which will be used to introduce oneself.

A. Pleased to meet you, he is Rishabh Modi 
B. Have you met Angha? She is the marketing
C. Hi I how are you?
D. It is a pleasure to meet you, I am Nerada manager. Panchal

5. Read the sentence given below and choose the language function that it indicates. It sounds doable.

A. Introducing yourself 
B. Introducing others 
C. How to say 'yes'
D. None

6. What is the full name of RK Narayan?

A. Rajan Krishnan Narayan Prasad 
B. Rasipuram Krishnaswami lyer Narayanaswami
C. Rasipuram Krishnan lyer Narayan 
D. Rasipuram Krishnan Narayanaswami

7. Choose from the following options the man eater in the short story- The Tiger's Claws.

A. The Talkative Man 
B. R K Narayan 
C. Porter 
D. Tiger

8. Identify the adjective from the sentence given below and choose the most appropriate option from those given underneath. The fact is that the soup offered is not edible.

A. That 
B. Soup 
C. Edible
D. Fact

9. What was the name of the forest where the tiger used to live in the short story- The Tiger's Claws?

A. Koppal 
B. Mempi 
C. Kanpur 
D. Memphi

10. Read the sentence given below and identify the type of sentence that it signifies from the options given underneath Amit did not attend the meeting.

A. Declarative Sentence 
B. Imperative Sentence 
C. Interrogative Sentence
D. Exclamatory Sentence

11. Identify an adverb from the sentence given below and choose the most appropriate option from underneath Anupam shouted loudly to attract people's attention.

A. Shouted 
B. Attract
C. Loudly 
D. Attention 

12. Choose the meaning of the adjective Dingy from the options given below.

A. Light 
B. Gloomy
C. Lurch 
D. Sudden

13. Identify the closed question from the options given below.

A. Why did you leave the car? 
B. Is there any news? 
C. How did this happen? 
D. Where is the venue?

14. Identify an independent clause from the following options.

A. Although I am hungry 
B. I can wait a few hours more
C. Whoever is doing this 
D. When I came back from the shop 

15. Identify the adjective in the sentence given below and choose from the options given underneath.
He has used meaningless sentences to express his anger. 

A. Used 
B. Express 
C. Meaningless 
D. Anger

16. Read the statements given below and identify the correct option from those given underneath.
A. The goal of intensive reading is to read in detail with specific learning
B. Focus of intensive reading is on themes and topics of the text. 

A. Only statement A is correct. 
B. Only statement B is correct.
C. Both the statements A and B are correct.
D. Both the statements A and B are incorrect.

17. Choose the correct option from the following that denotes the objective of extensive reading.

A. Obtaining pleasure from the text 
B. Having deeper understanding of the text
C. Identifying the main ideas in the text
D. Making inferences from the text 

18. Identify the technique of reading from the options given below.

A. Predicting 
B. Skimming 
C. Previewing 
D. Word association

19. Identify the style of reading from the options given below. 

A. Scanning 
B. Skimming 
C. Questioning 
D. Informing

20. Fill in the blank: Scanning helps to get an ________ of the text.

A. Focus 
B. Technique 
C. Overview 
D. Analysis 

21. What is the full form of Q in SQ4R technique of reading?

A. Quorum 
B. Quora 
C. Question 
D. Quest

22. Identify the author of the short story The Eyes Hove it from the following options.

A. R K Narayan 
B. Rushdie Band 
C. Ruskin Bond 
D. James Bond

23. Fill in the blank the idiom-Crocodile Tears is an example of ________.

A. Figurative idiom 
B. Prepositional idiom
C. Verbal idiom 
D. Clausal idiom

24. Fill in the blank: The idiom put up with him is an example of ________.

A. Figurative idiom 
B. Prepositional idiom
C. Pronoun idiom 
D. Noun idiom

25. Identify a complex sentence from the following options. 

A. We are defeated but not disgraced
B. The match was cancelled
C. I knew that he is a fraud
D. She informed me

26. Choose the meaning of the idiom to cook the books from the given options. 

A. Falsify financial records
B. Useless search
C. Destroy someone's reputation 
D. Possess bookish knowledge

27. Choose from the following options the meaning of the word Confusion 

A. Falsify 
B. Decide 
C. Uncertainty 
D. Unfortunate 

28. Fill in the blank Reading comprehension can be improved by __________.

A. Predicting 
B. Viewing 
C. Marking 
D. Resorting

29. Where was the girl in the story- The Eyes Have It going to get off?

A. Dehra 
B. Dehradun 
C. Mussoorie 
D. Saharanpur

30. Choose the most appropriate meaning of the word-Gallant from the options given below.

A. Brave 
B. Humble 
C. Modest 
D. Rage

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