Here is a high-yield, comprehensive 100-Question UPSC Civil Services Practice Paper (GS Paper 1) featuring historical and updated core conceptual questions across all subjects: Polity, History, Geography, Economy, Environment, and Science & Technology.
📝 UPSC Civil Services (GS Paper 1) 100-MCQs Mock Exam
⚖️ Section A: Indian Polity and Governance
Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the amendment of the Indian Constitution:
- An amendment bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament or in the State Legislatures.
- The President must give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill and cannot withhold or return it.
- Prior permission of the President is mandatory to introduce the bill in Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect because a constitutional amendment bill can only be initiated in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), never in state legislatures.
Statement 3 is incorrect because prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill.
Statement 2 is correct the 24th Amendment Act of 1971 made it mandatory for the President to give his assent.
Q2. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
- The orders of the Delimitation Commission can be challenged only in the Supreme Court of India.
- The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, but no modifications are permissible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect because the orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any Court of Law.
Statement 2 is correct the orders are laid before the houses, but modifications are forbidden.
Q3. Under which schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule
(b) Solution: The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. The landmark Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh judgment ruled that the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining is null and void under this schedule.
Q4. Which of the following bodies is/are chaired by the Prime Minister of India?
- Inter-State Council
- National Development Council
- National Water Resources Council
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: The Prime Minister of India acts as the ex-officio chairman of all three listed high-level national bodies coordinating federal resources and strategies.
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the "Whip" in the Indian Parliamentary system:
- The office of the Whip is explicitly mentioned and defined in the Rules of the House.
- Every political party, whether ruling or opposition, has its own Whip in Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect because the office of the Whip is based on parliamentary convention and is not mentioned anywhere in the Constitution or the Rules of the House.
Statement 2 is correct all political parties maintain whips.
Q6. With reference to the Writ of 'Quo-Warranto', consider the following statements:
- It is issued to prevent illegal usurpation of a public office by a person.
- Unlike other writs, it can be sought by any interested public-spirited person and not necessarily by an aggrieved person.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. Quo-Warranto checks the legality of a claim to a public office. Unlike other writs (like Mandamus or Certiorari), it can be filed by any public-spirited individual.
Q7. Consider the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
- It was introduced during the Prime Ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru via the 1st Constitutional Amendment.
- The Supreme Court has ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973, are open to judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment in 1951. In the I.R. Coelho case (2007), the SC ruled that laws placed after April 24, 1973 (the Kesavananda Bharati judgment date) are subject to judicial review.
Q8. Which Committee/Commission recommended the creation of a Nyaya Panchayat for a cluster of villages?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) GVK Rao Committee
(d) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) GVK Rao Committee
(d) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Solution: The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) on Panchayati Raj recommended a two-tier model and explicitly advocated for the creation of Nyaya Panchayats for a cluster of villages.
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
- It has exclusive power to authorize the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states.
- A Money Bill cannot be introduced or rejected by the Rajya Sabha, but it can amend it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Solution: Statement 1 is correct under Article 312.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill; it can only recommend amendments within a 14-day window.
Q10. The provisions of the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to:
(a) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) Determine the boundaries between States
(c) Determine the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) Protect the interests of all the border States
(b) Determine the boundaries between States
(c) Determine the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) Protect the interests of all the border States
(a) Solution: Both the Fifth and Sixth Schedules contain special constitutional provisions intended exclusively to protect the land, culture, and interests of Scheduled Tribes.
Q11. Consider the following statements regarding the Preventive Detention laws in India:
- The Constitution divides the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and State Legislatures.
- The maximum period for which a person can be detained without review by an advisory board is standardly three months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. Entry 9 of the Union List and Entry 3 of the Concurrent List divide preventive detention powers. The standard baseline for detention without Advisory Board review under Article 22 is 3 months.
Q12. Which of the following is/are explicitly mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
- Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
- Economic Justice
- Dignity of the nation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Solution: Statement 1 and 2 are lifted explicitly from the text of the Preamble.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the Preamble states "Dignity of the individual" and "Unity and Integrity of the Nation".
Q13. Consider the following statements regarding the Estimates Committee:
- It is the largest standing financial committee of the Parliament of India.
- Its members are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Solution: Statement 1 is correct; the Estimates Committee has 30 members, making it the largest.
Statement 2 is incorrect because all 30 members are drawn only from the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has no representation.
Q14. In the context of India, which of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
(a) Solution: Rights and duties are fundamentally correlative. One cannot exist without the other; a citizen's right implies a duty towards the rights of others.
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding the Governor’s power to grant pardon under Article 161:
- The Governor can fully pardon a death sentence if state law provides for it.
- The Governor’s pardoning power extends to punishments inflicted by a Court Martial.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Solution: Both statements are incorrect under Article 161. Only the President (under Article 72) can fully pardon a sentence of death or intervene in punishments handed out by a military Court Martial.
Q16. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution reveals the secular character of the Indian State?
- Preamble
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Solution: The Preamble secures liberty of belief and faith. The DPSPs (Article 44) direct a Uniform Civil Code. Fundamental Duties do not explicitly layout state secular traits.
Q17. With reference to the 10th Schedule of the Constitution (Anti-Defection Law), consider the following statements:
- The question as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification is decided by the Speaker/Chairman.
- The law allows a party to merge with another provided that at least two-thirds of the legislators agree to the merger.
- The decision of the Speaker/Chairman is completely immune to judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are key aspects of the Tenth Schedule.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) ruled that the Speaker’s decision is subject to judicial review.
🏛️ Section B: History, Art & Culture
Q18. With reference to ancient India, the terms 'Mitakshara' and 'Dayabhaga' refer to:
(a) Two major schools of Hindu law governing inheritance
(b) Systems of classical music popular in Northern and Southern India
(c) Architectural styles used in rock-cut cave temples
(d) Treatises on military warfare and statecraft
(b) Systems of classical music popular in Northern and Southern India
(c) Architectural styles used in rock-cut cave temples
(d) Treatises on military warfare and statecraft
(a) Solution: Mitakshara (applicable to most of India) and Dayabhaga (primarily historical to Bengal and Assam) are the two major legal schools governing Hindu property inheritance.
Q19. Consider the following pairs of historical places and their primary associations:
- Burzahom: Rock-cut shrines
- Chandraketugarh: Terracotta art
- Inamgaon: Megalithic burial site
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Solution: Pair 1 is incorrect because Burzahom (Kashmir) is a Neolithic pit-dwelling site. Pair 3 is incorrect because Inamgaon is a Chalcolithic site. Chandraketugarh (West Bengal) is widely famous for early historic terracotta art patterns.
Q20. Which one of the following foreign travelers elaborately discussed the diamonds and diamond mines of India?
(a) Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Niccolao Manucci
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Niccolao Manucci
(b) Solution: Jean-Baptiste Tavernier was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveler who traveled India extensively and left highly detailed accounts of the diamonds of Golconda.
Q21. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
- White marble was heavily used in making the Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri.
- Red sandstone and marble were both used in constructing the Alai Darwaza.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. The Buland Darwaza relies heavily on white marble inlay accents on sandstone. The Alai Darwaza (built by Alauddin Khilji) marks a pioneering blend of red sandstone and white marble walls.
Q22. The Ilbert Bill controversy during Lord Ripon's tenure was directly related to the:
(a) Imposition of severe restrictions on freedom of the native press
(b) Removal of racial disqualifications relating to the trial of Europeans by Indian magistrates
(c) Suppression of illegal trade in arms and ammunition by native rulers
(d) Restructuring of the Indian Civil Services examinations
(b) Removal of racial disqualifications relating to the trial of Europeans by Indian magistrates
(c) Suppression of illegal trade in arms and ammunition by native rulers
(d) Restructuring of the Indian Civil Services examinations
(b) Solution: The Ilbert Bill (1883) introduced by Lord Ripon sought to allow senior Indian magistrates to try Europeans in criminal cases, triggering massive racial protests from the British community.
Q23. With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi saints were known to practice which of the following?
- Meditation and control of breath
- Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place
- Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy (Sama)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: Sufi practices heavily incorporated local spiritual techniques, including breath control (Pranayama analogs), isolation, and musical gatherings (Sama) to induce spiritual ecstasy.
Q24. Consider the following statements regarding the Vijayanagara Empire:
- King Krishnadeva Raya wrote the famous work 'Amuktamalyada' in Sanskrit.
- The historic ruins of Hampi are located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect because King Krishnadeva Raya composed Amuktamalyada in Telugu (his work Jambavati Kalyanam was in Sanskrit).
Statement 2 is correct; Hampi is situated along the Tungabhadra River.
Q25. With reference to Indian history, who among the following is known as 'Future Buddha', who is yet to come to save the world?
(a) Lokesvara
(b) Padmapani
(c) Maitreya
(d) Amitabha
(b) Padmapani
(c) Maitreya
(d) Amitabha
(c) Solution: In Buddhist eschatology, Maitreya is the designated future Buddha who will eventually appear on Earth, achieve complete enlightenment, and restore pure dharma.
Q26. Which of the following statements correctly describes the 'Drain Theory' popularized by Dadabhai Naoroji?
(a) That a part of India's national wealth was being exported to Britain for which India got no material economic return.
(b) That the British industrialists were given monopolies to invest in Indian resource sectors.
(c) That the Indian labor force was being heavily taxed to build the British empire overseas.
(d) That the British goods were imported to India duty-free, destroying local handicrafts.
(b) That the British industrialists were given monopolies to invest in Indian resource sectors.
(c) That the Indian labor force was being heavily taxed to build the British empire overseas.
(d) That the British goods were imported to India duty-free, destroying local handicrafts.
(a) Solution: Dadabhai Naoroji’s classic 'Drain of Wealth' theory showed how a substantial portion of India's revenues was systematically sent to Britain via home charges without any real material return.
Q27. Consider the following pairs of ancient ports and their locations:
- Muziris: Malabar Coast
- Poduca: Coromandel Coast
- Tamralipti: Konkan Coast
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Solution: Muziris is on the Malabar (Kerala) coast, and Poduca (Arikamedu) is on the Coromandel (Puducherry) coast. Tamralipti was an ancient port on the eastern coast (Bengal), not the western Konkan coast.
Q28. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:
- It contributed directly to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and textile industries.
- The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. The Swadeshi movement (1905) sparked an institutional boom for local handlooms and gave rise to national education bodies like the National Council of Education (1906).
Q29. The term 'Saddler Commission' established during British rule was related to:
(a) Police reforms
(b) Judicial restructuring
(c) Education reforms
(d) Land revenue settlements
(b) Judicial restructuring
(c) Education reforms
(d) Land revenue settlements
(c) Solution: The Saddler Commission (1917) was appointed to investigate the systemic problems of Calcutta University, leading to structural overhauls in Indian collegiate and school education models.
Q30. Which one of the following books was written by Mahatma Gandhi while traveling from London to South Africa?
(a) Hind Swaraj
(b) The Story of My Experiments with Truth
(c) Satyagraha in South Africa
(d) Constructive Programme
(b) The Story of My Experiments with Truth
(c) Satyagraha in South Africa
(d) Constructive Programme
(a) Solution: Mahatma Gandhi authored Hind Swaraj (Indian Home Rule) in 1909 in Gujarati while traveling aboard the ship SS Kilonan Castle from London to South Africa.
Q31. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935:
- It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states.
- It abolished the system of dyarchy at the provincial level and introduced provincial autonomy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both are foundational features of the 1935 Act, introducing the concept of a voluntary federal union and eliminating provincial dyarchy to expand local provincial autonomy.
Q32. With reference to ancient India, what was 'Vishti'?
(a) A type of tax levied on agricultural land
(b) Forced labor extracted from villagers in lieu of taxes
(c) A religious ritual performed before going to war
(d) A specialized guild of spice merchants
(b) Forced labor extracted from villagers in lieu of taxes
(c) A religious ritual performed before going to war
(d) A specialized guild of spice merchants
(b) Solution: Vishti refers to forced, unpaid labor that the state or regional feudal lords extracted from common villagers during the Gupta and post-Gupta eras in lieu of standard monetary taxes.
Q33. Who among the following left the Congress after the passage of the Non-Cooperation resolution and founded the Indian Liberal Federation?
(a) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(d) Chittaranjan Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(c) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(d) Chittaranjan Das
(a) Solution: Opposing the shift toward extra-constitutional mass agitations during the Non-Cooperation movement, moderate liberals led by Surendranath Banerjee broke away to form the Indian Liberal Federation.
Q34. With reference to the history of India, the terms 'Kulyavapa' and 'Dronavapa' denote:
(a) Measurement of land
(b) Classification of urban taxes
(c) Different denominations of coins
(d) Sacrificial rituals
(b) Classification of urban taxes
(c) Different denominations of coins
(d) Sacrificial rituals
(a) Solution: In Gupta-era copper-plate inscriptions, Kulyavapa and Dronavapa denote units of land measurement calculated based on the weight or volume of seed grain required to sow them.
Section C: Indian and World Geography
Q35. Consider the following pairs of rivers and the seas they flow into:
- Mekong: South China Sea
- Volga: Caspian Sea
- Zambezi: Indian Ocean
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: All three geographic river outlets are accurately mapped across Asia, Europe, and Africa respectively.
Q36. In the context of India's geography, what is the correct sequence of the following hills from North to South?
(a) Nallamala Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Cardamom Hills
(b) Javadi Hills - Nallamala Hills - Cardamom Hills - Nilgiri Hills
(c) Nallamala Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills - Cardamom Hills
(d) Cardamom Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills - Nallamala Hills
(b) Javadi Hills - Nallamala Hills - Cardamom Hills - Nilgiri Hills
(c) Nallamala Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills - Cardamom Hills
(d) Cardamom Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills - Nallamala Hills
(a) Solution: The precise North-to-South sequence down the Eastern and Western Ghat networks is: Nallamala Hills (Andhra Pradesh) -> Javadi Hills (Tamil Nadu) -> Nilgiri Hills (TN/Kerala/Karnataka border) -> Cardamom Hills (Kerala).
Q37. Consider the following statements regarding Black Soil in India:
- It is highly retentive of moisture.
- It develops deep cracks during the dry season, which helps in self-aeration.
- It is rich in phosphorus, nitrogen, and organic matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Solution: Statement 1 and 2 are correct characteristics of Regur/Black lava soil.
Statement 3 is incorrect because black soil is naturally deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic humus matter.
Q38. Which of the following geographical features is historically known as the "Key to the Mediterranean"?
(a) Strait of Malacca
(b) Strait of Gibraltar
(c) Suez Canal
(d) Bab-el-Mandeb
(b) Strait of Gibraltar
(c) Suez Canal
(d) Bab-el-Mandeb
(b) Solution: The narrow Strait of Gibraltar, controlling the bottleneck transition from the open Atlantic Ocean into the inland Mediterranean basin, is strategically termed the "Key to the Mediterranean".
Q39. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India, consider the following statements:
- Area under rice cultivation is standardly the highest among food crops.
- Area under pulses cultivation is historically more than that of oilseeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Solution: Statement 1 is correct; rice consistently commands the highest acreage among Indian crops. Statement 2 is incorrect because the total area under oilseeds typically exceeds that of total pulse crops.
Q40. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert due to climate stressors?
(a) Lake Victoria
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta
(b) Lake Faguibine
(c) Lake Oguta
(d) Lake Volta
(b) Solution: Lake Faguibine in Mali (West Africa) has completely dried up over the past few decades due to prolonged Sahelian droughts and structural sand encroachment.
Q41. Consider the following statements regarding Jet Streams:
- Jet streams occur exclusively in the Northern Hemisphere.
- Most jet streams follow a wavy path across planetary systems known as Rossby waves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect because jet streams occur in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
Statement 2 is correct; their planetary flows form distinct meanders called Rossby waves.
Q42. Which of the following ocean currents belong to the Atlantic Ocean?
- Gulf Stream
- Benguela Current
- Kuroshio Current
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Solution: The warm Gulf Stream and the cold Benguela current belong to the Atlantic Ocean. The Kuroshio current is a warm system located in the North Pacific Ocean.
Q43. On 21st June, the Sun:
(a) Does not sink below the horizon at the Arctic Circle.
(b) Does not sink below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle.
(c) Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator.
(d) Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn.
(b) Does not sink below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle.
(c) Shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator.
(d) Shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn.
(a) Solution: During the Summer Solstice (June 21), the Sun does not set below the horizon at any point within the Arctic Circle, yielding 24 hours of continuous daylight.
Q44. Consider the following pairs of localized storms and their regions:
- Mango Showers: Karnataka and Kerala
- Bardoli Chheerha: Assam
- Loo: Punjab and Haryana
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: All three represent localized pre-monsoon convective storm names mapped correctly to their respective cultural and agricultural regions.
Q45. Which of the following countries open directly up to the Mediterranean Sea?
- Jordan
- Lebanon
- Syria
- Israel
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) Solution: Lebanon, Syria, and Israel maintain coastlines along the Mediterranean Sea. Jordan is geographically landlocked from the Mediterranean, opening only to the Red Sea via the Gulf of Aqaba.
Q46. Consider the following statements:
- The standard meridian of India passes through five states.
- The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight states in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. The 82°30'E Standard Meridian passes through 5 states (UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, AP). The Tropic of Cancer cuts through 8 states from Gujarat to Mizoram.
Q47. What is the correct sequence of the following structural zones of the Himalayas from South to North?
(a) Shiwaliks - Lesser Himalayas - Great Himalayas - Trans-Himalayas
(b) Trans-Himalayas - Great Himalayas - Lesser Himalayas - Shiwaliks
(c) Shiwaliks - Great Himalayas - Lesser Himalayas - Trans-Himalayas
(d) Lesser Himalayas - Shiwaliks - Great Himalayas - Trans-Himalayas
(b) Trans-Himalayas - Great Himalayas - Lesser Himalayas - Shiwaliks
(c) Shiwaliks - Great Himalayas - Lesser Himalayas - Trans-Himalayas
(d) Lesser Himalayas - Shiwaliks - Great Himalayas - Trans-Himalayas
(a) Solution: The standard geological sequence rising from the Indo-Gangetic plains northward to Tibet is: Shiwaliks (outermost) -> Lesser/Middle Himalayas -> Great/Inner Himalayas -> Trans-Himalayas.
📈 Section D: Indian Economy
Q48. If the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decides to adopt an expansionary monetary policy, which of the following would it NOT do?
- Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
- Increase the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate.
- Cut the Repo Rate and Bank Rate.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Solution: To expand credit and money supply, the RBI cuts baseline interest rates. Raising the MSF rate would tighten liquidity, which runs completely contrary to an expansionary stance.
Q49. Which of the following is treated as Artificial Currency?
(a) ADR
(b) GDR
(c) SDR
(d) Both ADR and GDR
(b) GDR
(c) SDR
(d) Both ADR and GDR
(c) Solution: IMF Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) exist purely as an international reserve/accounting asset and are commonly termed "paper gold" or artificial currency. ADRs and GDRs are financial instruments.
Q50. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
- If the inflation is too high, the RBI is likely to buy government securities from the open market.
- If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, the RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Solution: Statement 1 is incorrect because during high inflation, the RBI sells securities to suck out excess liquidity.
Statement 2 is correct; to arrest a crashing rupee, the RBI dumps dollars to absorb excess rupees.
Q51. Which of the following measures can help reduce a country's Current Account Deficit (CAD)?
- Devaluation of domestic currency.
- Increasing import duties on luxury goods.
- Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflows.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: All three tools work to ease CAD: currency devaluation makes exports competitive; import tariffs lower luxury spending; FDI inflows build up capital accounts to bridge current deficits.
Q52. Consider the following statements regarding the "Core Inflation":
- It measures the change in prices of goods and services excluding food and energy sectors.
- It is typically less volatile than Headline Inflation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. Core inflation tracks long-term structural prices by stripping away highly volatile, seasonal commodity sections like food and energy inputs.
Q53. In India, the term "Base Effect" refers to the impact of:
(a) Drastic changes in crop patterns due to bad monsoon
(b) The price levels of the corresponding period of the previous year on inflation rate
(c) Corporate tax cuts on industrial investments
(d) Fluctuations in global crude oil supply
(b) The price levels of the corresponding period of the previous year on inflation rate
(c) Corporate tax cuts on industrial investments
(d) Fluctuations in global crude oil supply
(b) Solution: The base effect describes how an unusually low or high inflation index baseline value from the exact corresponding month of the prior year distorts the perceived current percentage calculation.
Q54. Which of the following are part of the Capital Budget of the Government of India?
- Expenditure on acquisition of land and machinery.
- Loans given to State Governments.
- Interest payments on public debt.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Solution: Capital expenditures create assets or reduce long-term liabilities (like infrastructure spending or outbound state loans). Interest payments on public debt are recurring current expenses under the Revenue Budget.
Q55. With reference to the 'Gilt-edged market', it refers to the market for:
(a) Bullion (Gold and Silver)
(b) Government securities
(c) Shares of blue-chip companies
(d) Unlisted startup securities
(b) Government securities
(c) Shares of blue-chip companies
(d) Unlisted startup securities
(b) Solution: The gilt-edged market deals strictly in risk-free, highly secure institutional bonds and securities issued directly by the Government of India or state governments.
Q56. Consider the following statements regarding "Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)":
- FPI involves passive holdings of securities such as stocks and bonds without direct long-term operational control.
- It is generally considered more stable and long-term than Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Solution: Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect because FPI is liquid and highly volatile ("hot money"), making it significantly less stable than long-term, asset-backed FDI.
Q57. A rise in the general level of prices may be caused by:
- An increase in the aggregate supply of goods and services.
- An increase in the effective demand.
- An increase in the total money supply.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Solution: High aggregate demand and expanding money supply trigger demand-pull inflation (Statements 2 and 3). An expansion in aggregate supply would lower general price levels.
Q58. The term "Disinflation" refers to a situation where:
(a) There is a general fall in the price level over a sustained period.
(b) The rate of inflation decreases over time, but remains positive.
(c) Inflation and unemployment both rise simultaneously.
(d) The economy experiences a severe contraction in GDP output.
(b) The rate of inflation decreases over time, but remains positive.
(c) Inflation and unemployment both rise simultaneously.
(d) The economy experiences a severe contraction in GDP output.
(b) Solution: Disinflation represents a temporary slowing of the pace of price inflation (e.g., inflation dropping from 7% to 4%). Prices are still rising, but at a slower rate. A general fall in prices is deflation.
Q59. Which of the following organizations publishes the 'Global Economic Prospects' report?
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Trade Organization
(b) World Bank
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Trade Organization
(b) Solution: The 'Global Economic Prospects' report is a key global economic publication released twice a year by the World Bank.
Q60. With reference to Indian economy, the term "Microfinance" includes which of the following activities?
- Micro-credit
- Micro-savings
- Micro-insurance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: Modern institutional microfinance extends beyond basic micro-credit loans to provide low-income populations holistic financial access, including savings accounts and micro-insurance.
🌳 Section E: Environment, Ecology and Biodiversity
Q61. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a) Ecotone
(b) Ecological niche
(c) Habitat
(d) Home range
(b) Ecological niche
(c) Habitat
(d) Home range
(b) Solution: An ecological niche describes both the distinct physical territory an organism occupies and its functional, trophic role within its biological community.
Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the "Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS)" in India:
- State Governments can notify areas of biodiversity importance as BHS in consultation with local bodies.
- The declaration of a BHS completely bans all traditional agricultural activities inside the area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Solution: Statement 1 is correct under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. Statement 2 is incorrect because BHS guidelines explicitly protect and harmonize prevailing local community livelihoods and traditional agriculture.
Q63. In which of the following ecosystems is the pyramid of biomass typically inverted?
(a) Grassland ecosystem
(b) Marine ecosystem
(c) Forest ecosystem
(d) Desert ecosystem
(b) Marine ecosystem
(c) Forest ecosystem
(d) Desert ecosystem
(b) Solution: In aquatic and marine ecosystems, the rapid turnover rate and small standing mass of microscopic producers (phytoplankton) result in a characteristically inverted biomass pyramid.
Q64. Consider the following pairs of international agreements and their core focus areas:
- Cartagena Protocol: Biosafety
- Nagoya Protocol: Access and Benefit Sharing
- Rotterdam Convention: Hazardous Chemicals
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: All three are correct pillars of international environmental law handling biosafety, genetic resources, and toxic chemical hazards.
Q65. With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones' (ESZs), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- ESZs are areas declared around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- The purpose of declaring ESZs is to prohibit all kinds of human activities inside those zones except basic scientific research.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Solution: Both statements are incorrect. ESZs are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 (not the 1972 Act). They do not completely ban human entry; instead, they regulate and categorize activities into prohibited, regulated, and permitted zones.
Q66. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news in the context of ecology?
(a) Its extract is widely used in organic cosmetics.
(b) It is an invasive species that tends to reduce biodiversity in the area where it grows.
(c) Its juice is used in the synthesis of high-impact bio-pesticides.
(d) It is an excellent native carbon sink option for urban forestry.
(b) It is an invasive species that tends to reduce biodiversity in the area where it grows.
(c) Its juice is used in the synthesis of high-impact bio-pesticides.
(d) It is an excellent native carbon sink option for urban forestry.
(b) Solution: Prosopis juliflora is an aggressive invasive alien shrub native to South/Central America that chokes out native vegetation and rapidly lowers local biodiversity in semi-arid zones.
Q67. Consider the following statements regarding the "Montreux Record":
- It is a register of wetland sites on the List of wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
- Currently, Chilika Lake and Keoladeo National Park are the only two Indian sites in the Montreux Record.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Solution: Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect because Chilika Lake was removed from the Montreux Record after successful ecological restoration. Currently, Keoladeo (Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake (Manipur) are the only two active Indian sites.
Q68. Acid rain is primarily caused by the pollution of the environment by:
(a) Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen
(b) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
(c) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
(c) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide
(d) Solution: Acid rain forms when airborne emissions of Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and Nitrogen oxides (NOx) react with atmospheric water molecules to yield diluted sulfuric and nitric acids.
Q69. Consider the following statements regarding "Eutrophication":
- It is the process of nutrient enrichment of a water body leading to rapid algal blooms.
- It increases the level of Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in the bottom waters of the lake.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Solution: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because the subsequent death and bacterial decomposition of massive algal blooms rapidly consumes all Dissolved Oxygen, creating hypoxic "dead zones" at the bottom.
Q70. Which of the following can be found as major geogenic pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
- Arsenic
- Fluoride
- Uranium
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(b) Solution: Arsenic, Fluoride, and Uranium represent the three primary natural geogenic heavy element contaminants heavily present in groundwater aquifers across various regions of India.
Q71. The "Bonn Challenge" is a global effort related to:
(a) Phasing out hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
(b) Restoring deforested and degraded lands
(c) Combating illegal wildlife trafficking
(d) Minimizing plastic waste dumped into oceans
(b) Restoring deforested and degraded lands
(c) Combating illegal wildlife trafficking
(d) Minimizing plastic waste dumped into oceans
(b) Solution: Launched in 2011, the Bonn Challenge is a global ambition aiming to bring 350 million hectares of the world’s deforested and degraded landscapes into active restoration by 2030.
Q72. Consider the following statements regarding "Bio-Mining":
- It is a process that uses microorganisms to extract metals from ores or waste materials.
- It can be utilized to clean up legacy waste sites like old landfills.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. Bio-mining employs specialized microbes to oxidize and extract targeted metals from low-grade ores or municipal legacy landfill waste systems.
Q73. In India, if a species of animal is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?
(a) It enjoys the highest level of legal protection, equivalent to that of the tiger.
(b) It is no longer found in the wild, and is bred only under strict captivity.
(c) It is endemic to a particular single region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
(b) It is no longer found in the wild, and is bred only under strict captivity.
(c) It is endemic to a particular single region of India.
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct.
(a) Solution: Animals placed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act receive absolute statutory protection and the highest possible criminal penalties for poaching or trade violations.
Q74. Which of the following organisms are known as "Ecosystem Engineers" because they significantly modify the physical environment around them?
- Earthworms
- Beavers
- Coral Reefs
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: All three listed species act as classic ecosystem engineers because their biological presence and structures completely alter, construct, or maintain the physical habitats around them.
🧬 Section F: Science and Technology
Q75. With reference to 'Li-Fi' (Light Fidelity) technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It uses light waves as the medium for high-speed data transmission.
- It operates using the visible light spectrum and is expected to have data transmission speeds significantly faster than traditional Wi-Fi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. Li-Fi modulates visible light spectrum frequencies using LED bulbs to transmit data wirelessly at speeds significantly faster than standard radio-wave Wi-Fi.
Q76. Consider the following statements regarding "Graphene":
- It is a two-dimensional material consisting of a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a honeycomb lattice.
- It is an excellent conductor of both electricity and heat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. Graphene is an allotrope of carbon consisting of a single, two-dimensional layer of atoms packed in a honeycombed crystal lattice, offering record thermal and electrical conductivity.
Q77. In the context of modern scientific developments, the term "CRISPR-Cas9" refers to:
(a) A molecular tool used for targeted gene editing
(b) A navigation satellite constellation developed by ESA
(c) A deep-sea submersible robot for mineral extraction
(d) An advanced encryption standard for blockchain technology
(b) A navigation satellite constellation developed by ESA
(c) A deep-sea submersible robot for mineral extraction
(d) An advanced encryption standard for blockchain technology
(a) Solution: CRISPR-Cas9 (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) acts as a highly precise molecular tool used by scientists to edit specific target sequences of DNA.
Q78. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through blood transfusion?
- Hepatitis B
- HIV/AIDS
- Malaria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: All three blood-borne pathogens can be directly transmitted between individuals through the transfusion of un-screened, infected donor blood products.
Q79. Consider the following statements regarding "Web 3.0":
- It is based on decentralized blockchain networks.
- It allows users to have ownership over their own personal data.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. Web 3.0 represents a decentralized web architecture powered by blockchain protocols, returning data ownership back to individual users.
Q80. The term 'Goldilocks Zone' is often seen in the news in the context of:
(a) The optimal deep-sea level for extraction of polymetallic nodules
(b) The habitable zone around a star where liquid water can exist on a planet's surface
(c) The buffer zone created between two disputing borders
(d) The targeted inflation range determined by a central bank
(b) The habitable zone around a star where liquid water can exist on a planet's surface
(c) The buffer zone created between two disputing borders
(d) The targeted inflation range determined by a central bank
(b) Solution: The Goldilocks zone refers to the circumstellar habitable zone around a star where ambient planetary surface temperatures allow liquid water to exist without freezing or evaporating.
Q81. With reference to "Carbon Nanotubes (CNTs)", consider the following statements:
- They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
- They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for injured tissues.
- They are automatically completely biodegradable under all natural conditions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Solution: Statements 1 and 2 are correct biomedical uses of CNTs. Statement 3 is incorrect because pristine carbon nanotubes are highly resistant to natural chemical breakdown and are not automatically biodegradable.
Q82. What is the main principle behind the working of a Hydrogen Fuel Cell vehicle?
(a) Combustion of hydrogen gas directly in an internal combustion engine to produce torque.
(b) Chemical reaction of hydrogen with oxygen to generate electricity, leaving water as a byproduct.
(c) Nuclear fusion of hydrogen isotopes inside a micro-reactor to drive electric motors.
(d) Direct conversion of solar energy into liquid hydrogen fuel.
(b) Chemical reaction of hydrogen with oxygen to generate electricity, leaving water as a byproduct.
(c) Nuclear fusion of hydrogen isotopes inside a micro-reactor to drive electric motors.
(d) Direct conversion of solar energy into liquid hydrogen fuel.
(b) Solution: Hydrogen fuel cells generate clean electricity via an electrochemical reaction combining compressed hydrogen fuel with ambient oxygen, exhausting only clean water vapor.
Q83. Consider the following statements regarding "Near Field Communication (NFC)" technology:
- It is a short-range wireless connectivity technology that operates within a distance of a few centimeters.
- It uses electromagnetic radio fields to transmit data for transactions securely.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. NFC is a short-range high-frequency wireless communication technology operating within a tight 4 cm proximity limit to exchange data for contactless payments.
Q84. Which of the following is/are the key advantages of using "OLED" (Organic Light Emitting Diode) displays over traditional LCDs?
- OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates, allowing rollable screens.
- They offer true deep black levels because individual pixels can be turned off completely.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. OLED displays utilize organic thin-films that emit light directly without a rigid backlight, allowing them to be fabricated on flexible plastic bases and show true deep blacks by turning pixels completely off.
🧩 Section G: Core Conceptual Revision Questions
Q85. Consider the following statements regarding the ports in India:
- Major ports fall under the jurisdiction of the Union Government, while non-major minor ports fall under State Governments.
- The Major Port Authorities Act provides greater operational autonomy to major port boards compared to historical frameworks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. India's 12 major ports fall under the Union's jurisdiction via port authority boards. Non-major ports are managed by state maritime boards.
Q86. With reference to administrative units during the Gupta period, who among the following was typically appointed as the head of an administrative unit known as 'Bhukti'?
(a) Uparika
(b) Kumaramatya
(c) Vishayapati
(d) Gramika
(b) Kumaramatya
(c) Vishayapati
(d) Gramika
(a) Solution: Provincial governors in charge of major state administrative divisions known as Bhuktis during the Gupta Empire were officially titled as Uparikas.
Q87. Consider the following statements regarding the "Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016" (CAMPA):
- The fund collected is divided into Central and State shares in a 90:10 ratio in favor of the states.
- The funds can be utilized for voluntary relocation of people from protected forest areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct under the CAMPA framework. The funds collected from diversion of forest lands are split 90:10 (State:Center). Voluntary village relocation from core wildlife zones is a permitted expenditure.
Q88. Which of the following organisms are classified as primary decomposers in an ecosystem?
- Fungi
- Bacteria
- Millipedes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Solution: Fungi and bacteria are microorganisms that act as primary chemical decomposers. Millipedes are classified as detritivores or fragmenters because they physically ingest and break down detritus.
Q89. With reference to 'Green Hydrogen', consider the following statements:
- It is produced by splitting water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen using renewable energy.
- It produces zero greenhouse gas emissions when consumed or produced.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. Green hydrogen relies entirely on carbon-free renewable power inputs (like solar/wind water electrolysis), ensuring zero operational footprint.
Q90. The 'Basel III Accord' is often mentioned in news reports in relation to:
(a) Standardizing international shipping lane safety regulations.
(b) Improving the banking sector's ability to deal with financial and economic stress.
(c) Restricting transboundary movement of hazardous e-waste.
(d) Developing a unified carbon tax model across developing countries.
(b) Improving the banking sector's ability to deal with financial and economic stress.
(c) Restricting transboundary movement of hazardous e-waste.
(d) Developing a unified carbon tax model across developing countries.
(b) Solution: Basel III is a global, voluntary regulatory framework developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) to strengthen capital requirements and liquidity risk management within banks.
Q91. Which of the following states shares boundaries with the maximum number of other Indian states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Maharashtra
(b) Solution: Uttar Pradesh shares its borders with 8 states and 1 Union Territory (Delhi), making it the most connected state geographically.
Q92. With reference to the cultural history of India, the terms 'Nayanars' and 'Alvars' were:
(a) Devotional saints dedicated to Shiva and Vishnu respectively.
(b) Early schools of heterodox philosophy opposing Vedic authority.
(c) Guilds of master craftsmen building South Indian temples.
(d) Court poets under the early Chola rulers.
(b) Early schools of heterodox philosophy opposing Vedic authority.
(c) Guilds of master craftsmen building South Indian temples.
(d) Court poets under the early Chola rulers.
(a) Solution: The Nayanars (63 saints) championed the worship of Lord Shiva, while the Alvars (12 saints) spearheaded the Vaishnavite bhakti movement in South India.
Q93. Consider the following statements regarding the "Special Drawing Rights (SDR)" of the IMF:
- The value of SDR is determined based on a basket of five major international currencies.
- The Indian Rupee is currently a part of this currency basket.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Solution: Statement 1 is correct; the SDR basket contains the US Dollar, Euro, Chinese Renminbi, Japanese Yen, and British Pound.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Indian Rupee is not included.
Q94. Which of the following conventions is explicitly aimed at protecting human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants (POPs)?
(a) Stockholm Convention
(b) Basel Convention
(c) Vienna Convention
(d) Minamata Convention
(b) Basel Convention
(c) Vienna Convention
(d) Minamata Convention
(a) Solution: The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty dedicated to phasing out and eliminating persistent organic pollutants.
Q95. With reference to the Parliament of India, what is the significance of a "Guillotine" closure?
(a) It is used to pull back a bill that has been introduced by mistake.
(b) Undiscussed clauses of a bill or budget proposal are put to vote together due to time constraints.
(c) It suspends a member from the House for disorderly behavior.
(d) It terminates the ongoing budget session before its scheduled date.
(b) Undiscussed clauses of a bill or budget proposal are put to vote together due to time constraints.
(c) It suspends a member from the House for disorderly behavior.
(d) It terminates the ongoing budget session before its scheduled date.
(b) Solution: When time for budget demands runs out, the Speaker drops the remaining undiscussed items to an immediate vote using the guillotine closure procedure.
Q96. Consider the following statements regarding the "Global Environment Facility (GEF)":
- It serves as a financial mechanism for the UN Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
- It was originally established as an outcome of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Solution: Both statements are correct. The GEF acts as a key financial vehicle for several major environmental conventions and was introduced during the 1992 Earth Summit.
Q97. The term "Narrow Banking" is best described as a banking model where banks:
(a) Focus exclusively on providing micro-loans to vulnerable rural households.
(b) Invest their deposits primarily in safe, risk-free government securities rather than risky loans.
(c) Operate out of a single physical location without any branch expansion.
(d) Provide services strictly to tech-savvy urban retail clients.
(b) Invest their deposits primarily in safe, risk-free government securities rather than risky loans.
(c) Operate out of a single physical location without any branch expansion.
(d) Provide services strictly to tech-savvy urban retail clients.
(b) Solution: Narrow banks avoid credit risk entirely by avoiding loans to corporations, funneling their assets safely into sovereign government bonds.
Q98. Which of the following regions in India is famous for the endemic "Sangai" or brow-antlered deer?
(a) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
(b) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kaziranga National Park, Assam
(d) Silent Valley National Park, Kerala
(b) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Kaziranga National Park, Assam
(d) Silent Valley National Park, Kerala
(a) Solution: The rare, dancing Sangai deer is completely endemic to the floating organic meadows (phumdis) of Loktak Lake in Manipur.
Q99. Consider the following pairs of revolutionary organizations and their founders:
- Anushilan Samiti: Pramatha Nath Mitra
- Abhinav Bharat: G.D. Savarkar and V.D. Savarkar
- Ghadar Party: Lala Hardayal
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Solution: All three represent correctly paired radical nationalist and revolutionary groups active across India and overseas during the freedom struggle.
Q100. In India, who among the following is considered the "Legal Advisor to the State Government"?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Solicitor General of India
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(b) Solicitor General of India
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(c) Solution: Under Article 165 of the Constitution, the Advocate General serves as the primary legal advisor and representative for their respective state government.
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