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Thursday, August 13, 2026

Advanced Computer Awareness – 50 MCQs with Answers & Explanations

Study For Buddies August 13, 2026 0

Advanced Computer Awareness – 50 MCQs with Answers & Explanations

Advanced Computer Awareness is an important topic for students preparing for SSC CGL, Banking, Railway, UPSC, State PSC, and other competitive examinations. This practice set focuses on conceptual and slightly tricky questions rather than basic computer definitions.

Advanced Computer Awareness MCQs

Q1. Which memory is located closest to the CPU and generally provides the fastest access?

A) RAM
B) Cache Memory
C) Hard Disk
D) Optical Disk

Explanation: Cache memory is located very close to the CPU and stores frequently used data and instructions to reduce access time.

Q2. Which protocol translates a domain name such as example.com into an IP address?

A) FTP
B) HTTP
C) DNS
D) SMTP

Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) maps human-readable domain names to IP addresses.

Q3. In the OSI model, routing is primarily associated with which layer?

A) Physical Layer
B) Data Link Layer
C) Network Layer
D) Transport Layer

Explanation: The Network Layer is responsible for logical addressing and routing packets between different networks.

Q4. Which of the following is an asymmetric cryptographic algorithm?

A) AES
B) DES
C) RSA
D) 3DES

Explanation: RSA uses a public key and a private key, making it an asymmetric encryption algorithm.

Q5. Which SQL command removes a table, including its structure, from a database?

A) DELETE
B) REMOVE
C) DROP
D) CLEAR

Explanation: DROP TABLE removes the table and its associated data. DELETE removes rows while leaving the table structure intact.

Q6. Which data structure follows the LIFO principle?

A) Queue
B) Stack
C) Tree
D) Graph

Explanation: LIFO means Last In, First Out. The most recently inserted element is removed first.

Q7. Which data structure normally follows the FIFO principle?

A) Stack
B) Queue
C) Tree
D) Heap

Explanation: FIFO means First In, First Out. The first element inserted is normally the first one removed.

Q8. What is the main purpose of virtual memory?

A) To increase processor clock speed
B) To extend apparent memory using secondary storage
C) To permanently store BIOS settings
D) To replace the CPU cache

Explanation: Virtual memory allows the operating system to use disk or SSD space as an extension of physical RAM.

Q9. Which CPU component performs arithmetic and logical operations?

A) Control Unit
B) ALU
C) Register Unit
D) Cache Controller

Explanation: The Arithmetic Logic Unit performs arithmetic calculations and logical comparisons.

Q10. Which component primarily coordinates and controls the execution of instructions?

A) ALU
B) Control Unit
C) RAM
D) SSD

Explanation: The Control Unit directs the CPU's operations and coordinates instruction execution.

Q11. Which attack attempts to make a service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic from many sources?

A) Phishing
B) DDoS
C) Keylogging
D) Spoofing

Explanation: A Distributed Denial-of-Service attack uses multiple systems or sources to flood a target service with traffic.

Q12. Which of the following is an example of a relational database management system?

A) MySQL
B) Photoshop
C) Linux
D) Chrome

Explanation: MySQL is a relational database management system that organizes data into tables.

Q13. In a relational database, what uniquely identifies each row in a table?

A) Foreign Key
B) Primary Key
C) Candidate Field
D) Index Page

Explanation: A primary key uniquely identifies each record in a relational table.

Q14. Which SQL clause is used to filter rows before grouping?

A) ORDER BY
B) GROUP BY
C) WHERE
D) HAVING

Explanation: WHERE filters individual rows before grouping. HAVING is generally used to filter groups after GROUP BY.

Q15. Which SQL clause is generally used to filter grouped results?

A) WHERE
B) HAVING
C) SELECT
D) DISTINCT

Explanation: HAVING filters groups produced by GROUP BY, particularly when aggregate functions are involved.

Q16. Which protocol is commonly used for sending email?

A) SMTP
B) FTP
C) POP3
D) DNS

Explanation: SMTP, or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, is primarily used to send email between mail clients and servers and between mail servers.

Q17. Which protocol is commonly used to retrieve email while keeping messages synchronized on the server?

A) SMTP
B) IMAP
C) FTP
D) HTTP

Explanation: IMAP allows email to remain stored on the server and synchronizes messages across devices.

Q18. Which protocol is designed primarily for transferring files between computers?

A) FTP
B) SMTP
C) DNS
D) DHCP

Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol and is designed for transferring files over a network.

Q19. Which protocol automatically assigns IP configuration to devices on a network?

A) DNS
B) DHCP
C) FTP
D) ARP

Explanation: DHCP automatically provides network configuration such as IP addresses and related parameters to clients.

Q20. What is the primary purpose of ARP in an IPv4 local network?

A) Convert domain names into IP addresses
B) Map an IPv4 address to a MAC address
C) Encrypt network traffic
D) Assign IP addresses automatically

Explanation: ARP, or Address Resolution Protocol, is used to discover the MAC address associated with an IPv4 address on a local network.

Q21. Which device primarily operates at the Network Layer and forwards packets between networks?

A) Hub
B) Switch
C) Router
D) Repeater

Explanation: Routers forward packets between different networks using logical IP addressing.

Q22. Which device traditionally broadcasts incoming data to all connected ports?

A) Router
B) Hub
C) Switch
D) Firewall

Explanation: A traditional hub repeats incoming signals to all ports rather than selectively forwarding frames.

Q23. Which addressing scheme is associated with the Data Link Layer?

A) IP Address
B) MAC Address
C) URL
D) Port Number

Explanation: MAC addresses identify network interfaces at the Data Link Layer.

Q24. Which OSI layer is responsible for end-to-end delivery and reliability?

A) Network Layer
B) Transport Layer
C) Session Layer
D) Physical Layer

Explanation: The Transport Layer provides mechanisms for end-to-end communication, including reliability and flow control when supported by the protocol.

Q25. Which protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable byte-stream delivery?

A) UDP
B) IP
C) TCP
D) ICMP

Explanation: TCP establishes a connection and provides reliable, ordered delivery of a byte stream.

Q26. Which protocol is connectionless and generally has lower overhead than TCP?

A) TCP
B) UDP
C) FTP
D) SMTP

Explanation: UDP is connectionless and does not provide TCP-style guaranteed delivery or ordering.

Q27. What does HTTPS add to HTTP?

A) File compression only
B) Encryption and authentication through TLS
C) Faster CPU processing
D) Additional storage

Explanation: HTTPS uses HTTP over TLS, helping protect data in transit and authenticate the server.

Q28. Which type of malware can encrypt files and demand payment for their recovery?

A) Spyware
B) Ransomware
C) Adware
D) Rootkit

Explanation: Ransomware commonly encrypts files or locks systems and demands payment from victims.

Q29. Which malware is designed primarily to secretly monitor a user's activities?

A) Spyware
B) Firewall
C) Worm
D) Compiler

Explanation: Spyware secretly collects information about a user's activity and may transmit it to another party.

Q30. What is the main purpose of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?

A) Increase internet speed
B) Provide multiple independent authentication factors
C) Increase storage capacity
D) Compress files

Explanation: MFA requires two or more different types of authentication factors, improving account security.

Q31. Which of the following is an example of biometric authentication?

A) Password
B) PIN
C) Fingerprint
D) Username

Explanation: Fingerprints are biometric characteristics used to verify a person's identity.

Q32. Which type of encryption uses the same key for encryption and decryption?

A) Symmetric encryption
B) Asymmetric encryption
C) Hashing
D) Digital signature

Explanation: Symmetric encryption uses the same secret key, or corresponding secret material, for encryption and decryption.

Q33. Which of the following is primarily a hashing algorithm rather than an encryption algorithm?

A) AES
B) RSA
C) SHA-256
D) DES

Explanation: SHA-256 is a cryptographic hash function that produces a fixed-length digest.

Q34. What is the main property of a cryptographic hash function?

A) It is designed to be easily reversible
B) It produces a fixed-length digest from input data
C) It always compresses files
D) It assigns IP addresses

Explanation: A cryptographic hash function transforms input into a fixed-length digest and is designed to make reversing the process computationally infeasible.

Q35. Which technology is commonly used to create a secure encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network?

A) VPN
B) DNS
C) DHCP
D) FTP

Explanation: A Virtual Private Network can create an encrypted connection over an untrusted network such as the public internet.

Q36. What is the main purpose of a compiler?

A) Execute only one instruction
B) Translate source code into another form, typically machine code or an intermediate form
C) Manage network traffic
D) Store passwords

Explanation: A compiler translates a program written in a high-level language into a form suitable for execution.

Q37. Which translator executes a program statement-by-statement rather than producing a complete machine-code program in one step?

A) Compiler
B) Interpreter
C) Assembler
D) Linker

Explanation: An interpreter generally reads and executes source instructions progressively rather than compiling the entire program ahead of execution.

Q38. Which language is commonly considered an interpreted, high-level programming language?

A) Python
B) Assembly
C) Machine Code
D) Binary

Explanation: Python is a high-level language commonly executed through an interpreter implementation, although modern implementations may also use compilation to intermediate forms.

Q39. Which of the following best describes an algorithm?

A) A physical computer component
B) A step-by-step procedure for solving a problem
C) A type of database
D) A network cable

Explanation: An algorithm is a finite sequence of well-defined steps designed to solve a problem or perform a task.

Q40. Which data structure is commonly used to implement recursion?

A) Stack
B) Queue
C) Graph
D) Hash table

Explanation: Function calls and recursive calls are commonly managed using a call stack.

Q41. Which sorting algorithm has an average-case time complexity of O(n log n)?

A) Bubble Sort
B) Selection Sort
C) Merge Sort
D) Linear Search

Explanation: Merge Sort has O(n log n) time complexity in its average and worst cases.

Q42. Binary search requires the data to be:

A) Randomly arranged
B) Sorted
C) Encrypted
D) Duplicated

Explanation: Binary search repeatedly divides a sorted search space into halves to locate an element efficiently.

Q43. What is the average time complexity of binary search?

A) O(n)
B) O(n²)
C) O(log n)
D) O(1)

Explanation: Binary search eliminates approximately half of the remaining search space at each step.

Q44. Which database property ensures that a transaction is treated as an indivisible unit?

A) Consistency
B) Atomicity
C) Isolation
D) Durability

Explanation: Atomicity means a transaction either completes fully or has no effect.

Q45. In the ACID properties of a database, what does “D” stand for?

A) Data
B) Dependency
C) Durability
D) Distribution

Explanation: Durability means committed transaction results should persist even after failures such as a system crash.

Q46. Which technology allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical computer?

A) Virtualization
B) Defragmentation
C) Encryption
D) Spooling

Explanation: Virtualization allows a physical machine's resources to be divided among multiple virtual environments.

Q47. Which cloud service model provides virtualized computing resources such as servers and storage?

A) SaaS
B) PaaS
C) IaaS
D) DaaS

Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service provides virtualized infrastructure resources such as computing, networking, and storage.

Q48. Which cloud model provides users with ready-to-use software over the internet?

A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) BIOS

Explanation: Software as a Service delivers software applications through the internet, usually without requiring users to manage the underlying infrastructure.

Q49. Which of the following is a key characteristic of a deadlock in an operating system?

A) All processes finish immediately
B) Processes wait indefinitely for resources held by one another
C) CPU temperature increases
D) Files are automatically deleted

Explanation: A deadlock can occur when processes are permanently waiting for resources held by other waiting processes.

Q50. Which statement about IPv4 and IPv6 is correct?

A) IPv4 uses 128-bit addresses
B) IPv6 uses 32-bit addresses
C) IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses and IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses
D) Both use 64-bit addresses

Explanation: IPv4 uses 32-bit addressing, while IPv6 expands the address space to 128 bits.

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Friday, August 7, 2026

SSC CGL Tier-I Similar Paper (Based on 12 Sept 2025 Shift-2 Pattern)

Study For Buddies August 07, 2026 0

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SSC CGL Tier-I Similar Paper (Based on 12 Sept 2025 Shift-2 Pattern)

📑 Paper Index

General Instructions
Section A – General Intelligence & Reasoning (Questions 1–25)
Section B – General Awareness (Questions 26–50)
Section C – Quantitative Aptitude (Questions 51–75)
Section D – English Comprehension (Questions 76–100)
Answer Key
Detailed Solutions & Explanations

Part-1: General Intelligence & Reasoning (Q1–Q25)

Q1. Find the missing number.

3 : 15 :: 7 : ?

A) 35
B) 49
C) 63
D) 56

Solution:

3 × 5 = 15
7 × 5 = 35

Q2. Choose the odd one out.

A) Square
B) Rectangle
C) Triangle
D) Circle

Solution:

Square, Rectangle, and Triangle are polygons with straight sides. Circle has no sides.

Q3. If APPLE = BQQMF, then MANGO = ?

A) NBOHP
B) NBMHP
C) NBOGP
D) OCPHQ

Solution:

Each letter is shifted by +1.

Q4. Complete the series.
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

A) 40
B) 42
C) 44
D) 46

Solution:

Differences are +4, +6, +8, +10
Next difference = +12
30 + 12 = 42

Q5. Which word cannot be formed from COMPETITION?

A) Motion
B) Option
C) Topic
D) Potion

Solution:

The letters required for Topic are not available in sufficient quantity.

Q6. Rahul walks 10 m North, then 10 m East, then 10 m South. In which direction is he from the starting point?

A) North
B) South
C) East
D) West

Solution:

He ends up 10 m east of the starting point.

Proper Solution (Step-by-Step):

Assume Rahul starts at point O (0,0)

1. Walks 10 m North

Position becomes (0,10)

2. Walks 10 m East

Position becomes (10,10)

3. Walks 10 m South

Position becomes (10,0)

Now compare the final position (10,0) with the starting point (0,0).

Rahul is 10 m to the East of the starting point.

Illustration:

Shortcut Trick (For Competitive Exams):

North (10 m) and South (10 m) cancel each other.
Only 10 m East remains.

Q7. Find the next term.

AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?

A) IR
B) IQ
C) JR
D) KR

Solution:

First letters: A, C, E, G → +2
Second letters: Z, X, V, T → −2

Q8. If DOG = 26, CAT = 24, then BAT = ?

A) 23
B) 24
C) 25
D) 22

Solution:

B = 2, A = 1, T = 20
2 + 1 + 20 = 23

Q9. Mirror image of 2F8L

A) L8F2
B) 2F8L
C) LF82
D) 8LF2

Exam Shortcut

Mirror Image = Order Reverse (Left ↔ Right)
Water Image = Top ↔ Bottom

Example:

ABCD → Mirror → DCBA
1234 → Mirror → 4321
2F8L → Mirror → L8F2

Q10. Select the related word.

Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?

A) School
B) Library
C) Office
D) Market

Q11. Find the odd one.

A) January
B) March
C) May
D) June

Solution:

January, March, and May have 31 days. June has 30 days.

Q12. Arrange alphabetically.

Mango
Apple
Banana
Orange

A) 2,3,1,4
B) 2,1,3,4
C) 3,2,1,4
D) 1,2,3,4

Step 1: Alphabetical Order (A to Z)
Apple (A)
Banana (B)
Mango (M)
Orange (O)

Step 2: Write their original numbers
Apple → 2
Banana → 3
Mango → 1
Orange → 4

So the correct sequence is: 2, 3, 1, 4

Q13. Find the missing letter.

A, D, G, J, ?

A) L
B) M
C) N
D) O

Solution:

Each letter increases by +3.

Q14. Which number is different?

A) 16
B) 25
C) 36
D) 48

Solution:

16, 25, and 36 are perfect squares.

Number Square? 16 4² 25 5² 36 6² 48 Not a perfect square

Q15. If PEN = 39, then BOOK = ?

A) 47
B) 43
C) 45
D) 50

Solution:
Step 1: Find the value of PEN

Use the alphabetical positions:
P = 16
E = 5
N = 14

PEN = 16 + 5 + 14 = 35

PEN = 39
Alphabet Value + 4
35 + 4 = 39

Step 2: Apply the same rule to BOOK

Alphabet values:
B = 2
O = 15
O = 15
K = 11

BOOK = 2 + 15 + 15 + 11 = 43

BOOK = 43
Alphabet Value + 4
43 + 4 = 47

Q16. Which figure completes the pattern?

A) Triangle
B) Circle
C) Square
D) Pentagon

Q17. Statement:

All pens are books. Some books are tables.

Conclusion:
I. Some pens are tables.
II. Some books are pens.

A) Only I
B) Only II
C) Both
D) Neither

Q18. Find the next number.

5, 10, 20, 40, ?

A) 60
B) 80
C) 70
D) 90

Observe the pattern:
5 × 2 = 10
10 × 2 = 20
20 × 2 = 40
40 × 2 = 80

Each number is twice the previous number

Q19. If South becomes North-East, then East becomes?

A) South-East
B) North-West
C) South-West
D) North-East

Q20. Which pair is similar?

A) Fish : Water
B) Bird : Nest
C) Lion : Forest
D) All of these

Q21. Find the odd number.

8, 27, 64, 125, 150

A) 8
B) 27
C) 125
D) 150

Solution:

When you see numbers like 8, 27, 64, 125, immediately think of perfect cubes:
2³ = 8
3³ = 27
4³ = 64
5³ = 125

Since 150 does not fit this pattern, it is the odd one out.

Q22. If A = 1, B = 2, then CODE = ?

A) 27
B) 28
C) 29
D) 30

Solution:

C = 3, O = 15, D = 4, E = 5
3 + 15 + 4 + 5 = 27

Q23. Find the missing number.

6, 12, 24, 48, ?

A) 72
B) 84
C) 96
D) 108

Multiply the previous number by 2.

48 × 2 = 96

Q24. Which word is correctly arranged?

A) India : Asia
B) Gujarat : India
C) Ahmedabad : Gujarat
D) All of these

Q25. Find the next term.

1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?

A) 30
B) 35
C) 36
D) 49

Solution:

The series is the sequence of perfect squares:
1², 2², 3², 4², 5², 6² = 36.

Part 2: General Awareness (Q26–Q50)

Q26. Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution"?

A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Patel

Solution: Dr. B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee of the Constitution and is widely known as the Father of the Indian Constitution.

Q27. Which gas is most abundant in Earth's atmosphere?

A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Hydrogen

Solution: The atmosphere contains about 78% Nitrogen and 21% Oxygen.

Q28. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the Right to Equality?

A) Articles 12–35
B) Articles 14–18
C) Articles 19–22
D) Articles 25–28

Solution:
The Right to Equality is one of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
It is covered under Articles 14 to 18.

Q29. The currency of Japan is:

A) Won
B) Yuan
C) Yen
D) Ringgit

Q30. Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"?

A) Venus
B) Mars
C) Mercury
D) Jupiter

Solution:
Mars is called the "Red Planet" because its surface contains a large amount of iron oxide (rust), which gives it a reddish appearance.

Q31. Who discovered the sea route to India in 1498?

A) Christopher Columbus
B) Vasco da Gama
C) Marco Polo
D) Ferdinand Magellan

Q32. Which is the largest gland in the human body?

A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Pituitary

Q33. Which Fundamental Duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment?

A) Protect public property
B) Respect the National Flag
C) Provide education to children (6–14 years)
D) Develop scientific temper

Q34. "Jallianwala Bagh Massacre" took place in:

A) 1915
B) 1917
C) 1919
D) 1922

Q35. Which vitamin is produced in the human body through sunlight?

A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin K

Q36. Which river is known as the "Sorrow of Bihar"?

A) Ganga
B) Kosi
C) Yamuna
D) Son

Q37. The headquarters of ISRO is located in:

A) Hyderabad
B) Bengaluru
C) Chennai
D) New Delhi

Q38. Which Mughal emperor built the Red Fort?

A) Akbar
B) Babur
C) Shah Jahan
D) Aurangzeb

Q39. Which instrument measures atmospheric pressure?

A) Thermometer
B) Barometer
C) Hygrometer
D) Ammeter

Q40. Which State is known as the "Spice Garden of India"?

A) Tamil Nadu
B) Kerala
C) Karnataka
D) Assam

Q41. The SI unit of electric current is:

A) Volt
B) Ampere
C) Ohm
D) Watt

Q42. Who wrote the book "Discovery of India"?

A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Subhas Chandra Bose
D) Rabindranath Tagore

Q43. Which Indian classical dance originated in Kerala?

A) Bharatanatyam
B) Kathak
C) Kathakali
D) Odissi

Q44. RBI was established in:

A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1947
D) 1950

Q45. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?

A) A+
B) B+
C) O−
D) AB+

Q46. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9

Solution: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.

Q47. Which Schedule of the Constitution contains the list of recognized languages?

A) Sixth Schedule
B) Seventh Schedule
C) Eighth Schedule
D) Ninth Schedule

Q48. Which Indian scientist is known as the "Missile Man of India"?

A) Homi Bhabha
B) Vikram Sarabhai
C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
D) C. V. Raman

Q49. The headquarters of UNESCO is in:

A) London
B) New York
C) Paris
D) Geneva

Q50. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?

A) Iron
B) Copper
C) Mercury
D) Aluminium

Part 3: Quantitative Aptitude (Q51–Q75)

Q51. What is 25% of 640?

A) 140
B) 150
C) 160
D) 170

Solution:
25% = 1/4
640 ÷ 4 = 160

Shortcut: 25% means divide by 4.

Q52. A shopkeeper gives 10% discount on a product marked at ₹800. Find the selling price.

A) ₹700
B) ₹720
C) ₹740
D) ₹760

Solution:
Discount = 10% of 800 = ₹80
Selling Price = 800 − 80 = ₹720

Q53. The average of 15, 20, 25, 30, 35 is:

A) 24
B) 25
C) 26
D) 27

Solution:
Sum = 15 + 20 + 25 + 30 + 35 = 125
Average = 125 ÷ 5 = 25

Q54. Find the HCF of 24 and 36.

A) 6
B) 8
C) 12
D) 18

Q55. A train travels 360 km in 6 hours. Its speed is:

A) 50 km/h
B) 55 km/h
C) 60 km/h
D) 65 km/h

Solution:
Speed = Distance ÷ Time = 360 ÷ 6 = 60 km/h

Q56. If x = 8, then 3x + 5 = ?

A) 27
B) 28
C) 29
D) 30

Q57. A sum doubles in 8 years at simple interest. The rate of interest is:

A) 10%
B) 12.5%
C) 15%
D) 8%

Solution:
SI = Principal
R = (100 × 1) ÷ 8 = 12.5%

Q58. The value of √784 is:

A) 26
B) 27
C) 28
D) 29

Q59. A man buys an article for ₹500 and sells it for ₹575. Profit percentage is:

A) 10%
B) 12%
C) 15%
D) 18%

Q60. Find the value of:
18 × 5 − 24

A) 64
B) 66
C) 68
D) 70

Q61. The ratio 12 : 18 in simplest form is:

A) 2 : 3
B) 3 : 4
C) 4 : 5
D) 5 : 6

Q62. A can complete a work in 12 days. His one day's work is:

A) 1/10
B) 1/12
C) 1/14
D) 1/16

Q63. Find the missing number:
4, 9, 16, 25, ?

A) 30
B) 34
C) 36
D) 49

Q64. The perimeter of a square is 48 cm. Find its side.

A) 10 cm
B) 11 cm
C) 12 cm
D) 13 cm

Q65. Convert 0.75 into a fraction.

A) 2/5
B) 3/4
C) 4/5
D) 5/6

Q66. If 5 pens cost ₹150, then 8 pens will cost:

A) ₹220
B) ₹230
C) ₹240
D) ₹250

Q67. A number is increased by 20%. The new number is 360. Find the original number.

A) 280
B) 290
C) 300
D) 320

Solution:
Original = 360 × 100 ÷ 120 = 300

Q68. The LCM of 8 and 12 is:

A) 16
B) 20
C) 24
D) 48

Q69. A car covers 150 km in 3 hours. Speed is:

A) 45 km/h
B) 50 km/h
C) 55 km/h
D) 60 km/h

Q70. If 2x = 18, then x = ?

A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 12

Q71. The area of a rectangle of length 15 cm and breadth 8 cm is:

A) 110 cm²
B) 115 cm²
C) 120 cm²
D) 125 cm²

Q72. Find the simple interest on ₹4,000 at 5% per annum for 2 years.

A) ₹300
B) ₹350
C) ₹400
D) ₹450

Q73. A batsman scores 45, 60, 55, 70 and 70 runs. His average score is:

A) 58
B) 59
C) 60
D) 61

Solution:
Total = 45 + 60 + 55 + 70 + 70 = 300
Average = 300 ÷ 5 = 60

Q74. What is 35% of 200?

A) 60
B) 65
C) 70
D) 75

Q75. If the cost price of an article is ₹800 and it is sold at 10% profit, find the selling price.

A) ₹860
B) ₹870
C) ₹880
D) ₹890

Solution:
Selling Price = 800 + (10% of 800) = 800 + 80 = ₹880

Part 4: English Comprehension (Q76–Q100)

Q76. Choose the correctly spelled word.

A) Accomodation
B) Accommodation
C) Acommodation
D) Accommudation

Explanation: Accommodation is the correct spelling.

Q77. Choose the synonym of "Rapid".

A) Slow
B) Fast
C) Weak
D) Quiet

Q78. Choose the antonym of "Ancient".

A) Old
B) Modern
C) Historic
D) Traditional

Q79. Fill in the blank.
She _____ to school every day.

A) go
B) goes
C) going
D) gone

Q80. Choose the correct passive voice.
They are writing a letter.

A) A letter is written by them.
B) A letter was written by them.
C) A letter is being written by them.
D) A letter has been written by them.

Q81. Choose the correct indirect speech.
He said, "I am busy."

A) He said that I am busy.
B) He said that he was busy.
C) He says that he was busy.
D) He told I was busy.

Q82. Fill in the blank.
The sun _____ in the east.

A) rise
B) rises
C) rising
D) rose

Q83. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.

A) What is your name.
B) What is your name?
C) What, is your name?
D) What is, your name?

Q84. Choose the one-word substitution.
One who cannot read or write

A) Literate
B) Scholar
C) Illiterate
D) Educated

Q85. Choose the idiom meaning of "Hit the nail on the head."

A) Miss the point
B) Speak exactly right
C) Work hard
D) Hit someone

Q86. Fill in the blank.
He is good _____ Mathematics.

A) in
B) on
C) at
D) for

Q87. Choose the correct article.
He bought _____ umbrella.

A) a
B) an
C) the
D) no article

Q88. Choose the synonym of "Brave."

A) Cowardly
B) Bold
C) Weak
D) Timid

Q89. Choose the antonym of "Victory."

A) Success
B) Triumph
C) Defeat
D) Achievement

Q90. Spot the error.

He do not know the answer.

A) He
B) do not
C) know
D) the answer

Correct Sentence: He does not know the answer.

Q91. Fill in the blank.
Neither Ram nor his friends _____ present.

A) is
B) are
C) was
D) has

Rule: With neither...nor, the verb agrees with the subject nearest to it (friends).

Q92. Choose the correct spelling.

A) Government
B) Goverment
C) Government
D) Govenment

Q93. One-word substitution.
A person who writes poems

A) Novelist
B) Poet
C) Author
D) Editor

Q94. Fill in the blank.
The train arrived _____ time.

A) on
B) at
C) in
D) for

Q95. Choose the correctly spelled word.

A) Enviroment
B) Environment
C) Environmant
D) Enviornment

Read the Passage and Answer Q96–Q100

Passage:
Riya loves reading books. She visits the library every Sunday and borrows two books. Reading helps her improve her vocabulary and knowledge. She also shares interesting stories with her friends.

Q96. Where does Riya go every Sunday?

A) School
B) Market
C) Library
D) Park

Q97. How many books does she borrow?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

Q98. Reading improves her:

A) Health
B) Vocabulary and knowledge
C) Singing
D) Drawing

Q99. Whom does she share stories with?

A) Teachers
B) Parents
C) Friends
D) Neighbours

Q100. Choose the most suitable title.

A) A School Trip
B) Riya's Reading Habit
C) My Garden
D) Sports Day

Important Note: This is a practice paper created to closely resemble the SSC CGL Tier-I examination pattern and difficulty level observed in the 12 September 2025 Shift-2 exam. It is not the official SSC question paper or an exact memory-based paper.

The questions have been prepared by analyzing the latest SSC CGL syllabus, previous years' papers, and recent exam trends. The paper is designed to help aspirants understand the type of questions, improve speed and accuracy, and assess their preparation.

Thursday, August 6, 2026

Macro Economic Issues and Policies (MEIP) Exam Paper – 26 February 2020 | Solved MCQs, Answers & Explanations

Study For Buddies August 06, 2026 0

SY Semester 4 MCQS

Macro Economic Issues and Policies (MEIP) Exam Paper – 26 February 2020 | Solved MCQs, Answers & Explanations

S.Y B.COM

SEMESTER - 4

MACRO ECONOMIC ISSUES AND POLICIES

(MEIP)

EXAM PAPER – 26 FEB 2020

Q1. To produce new currency, RBI adopted ______ reserve system in the year ______.

A. Minimum, 1957
B. Minimum, 1956
C. Proportionate, 1957
D. Proportionate, 1956

Explanation:
Initially RBI followed the Proportional Reserve System.
Since 1957, RBI follows the Minimum Reserve System, under which it maintains minimum reserves of gold and foreign securities.

Q2. In order to understand the burden of public borrowings ________.

A. Rely upon government borrowing data
B. We should talk to World Bank and IMF
C. Classify borrowing into internal and external segment
D. Understand government expenditure external segments

Explanation:
Public debt is mainly divided into:
Internal Debt
External Debt
This classification helps understand the burden of public borrowing.

Q3. The credit creation by the commercial banks directly depends on ______.

A. Other Deposits with RBI and Bank Rate
B. Other Deposits with RBI and CRR
C. Primary Deposits and Bank Rate
D. Primary Deposits and CRR

Explanation:
Credit creation depends upon:
Primary Deposits (base for lending)
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), which determines how much banks must keep with RBI.
Higher CRR → Less lending.
Lower CRR → More lending.

Q4. According to Chakravarty Committee, which of the following is the main objective of Monetary Policy?

A. Increasing Employment Opportunities
B. Economic Growth
C. Equitable Distribution of National Income
D. Price Stabilization

Explanation:
The Chakravarty Committee recommended that the primary objective of monetary policy should be price stability, ensuring inflation remains under control while supporting economic growth.

Q5. Bank rate policy will fail if there are ______.

A. Integrated financial system
B. Elastic interest rates
C. Alternative sources of borrowing available
D. Conducive economic environment

Explanation:
If businesses can borrow from other financial institutions instead of commercial banks, changes in the Bank Rate will have little effect.
Hence Bank Rate Policy becomes ineffective.

Q6. Velocity of circulation of money refers to ______.

A. Circulation of money among people.
B. Rate of change in currency against deposit.
C. Average number of times a unit of currency changes hands.
D. Circulation of money between and people.

Explanation:
Velocity of Money means:
The average number of times one unit of money is used to purchase goods and services during a given period.
Higher velocity → Higher economic activity.
Lower velocity → Slower economy.

Q7. Which of the following is correct with reference to the money supply in India?

I. The share of currency in circulation is highest in the money supply.
II. The share of bank money is highest in the money supply.
III. CRR and credit money are inversely related.

A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II

Explanation: Statement I : Incorrect
In India, bank money (demand deposits) forms a larger share of the money supply than currency in circulation.

Statement II : Correct
Money supply mainly consists of:
Currency with the public
Demand deposits with banks
Demand deposits (bank money) generally have the largest share.

Statement III : Correct
CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) and credit creation have an inverse relationship.
Higher CRR → Less lending
Lower CRR → More lending

Q8. Weighted Index Number is superior to Simple Index Number because ________.

A. Weights are assigned as per importance of commodities.
B. Weights are arbitrary to the extent of madness.
C. Weights are assigned as per choice.
D. Weights are generally uniform in nature.

Explanation
Weighted Index Numbers assign greater importance to commodities that consumers purchase more frequently.
For example: Rice has greater importance than pencils in calculating the Cost of Living Index.
Hence Weighted Index is more realistic.

Q9. If the initial deposit is ₹50,000 and CRR is 30%, find the credit multiplier.

A. 2.60
B. 2.33
C. 2.25
D. 2

Explanation

Formula
Credit Multiplier = 1 / CRR
CRR = 30%
= 30/100

= 0.30
Multiplier = 1 ÷ 0.30
= 3.33
However, in many university papers the expected answer is based on the credit creation multiplier (1 − CRR) / CRR:

Hence the expected answer is B. 2.33.

Formula
The Credit Multiplier (Cm) is: Credit Multiplier = 1−CRR/CRR

Calculation

CRR = 30% = 0.30

Cm = 1−0.30/0.30

= 0.70/0.30

= 2.33

Note: The initial deposit of ₹50,000 is not required to calculate the credit multiplier. It is needed only if the question asks for the total credit created.

Q10. One of the following is NOT a function of money.

A. Medium of Exchange
B. Difference of Payment
C. Measure of Value
D. Store of Value

Explanation
Functions of Money:
✔ Medium of Exchange
✔ Measure of Value
✔ Store of Value
✔ Standard of Deferred Payments
There is no function called Difference of Payment.

Q11. As an objective of monetary policy, price stability is contradictory to the objective of

A. Equity of income distribution
B. Reduction of unemployment
C. Removal of poverty
D. Exchange rate stability

Explanation
Sometimes reducing unemployment requires expansionary monetary policy.
Expansionary policy increases money supply.
Too much money supply may increase inflation.
Thus there is often a trade-off between:
Price Stability
Employment

Q12. In ______ order to adjust liquidity in the economy the RBI principally uses one of the following policies.

A. Income Policy
B. Fiscal Policy
C. Repo Rate Policy
D. Selective Credit Control Policy

Explanation
Repo Rate is the main monetary policy instrument used by RBI to regulate liquidity.
Higher Repo Rate
→ Less borrowing
→ Lower money supply
Lower Repo Rate
→ More borrowing
→ Higher liquidity

Q13. Match the Following

I. Stanley Withers	a. Conventional approach to money
II. Milton Friedman	b. Chicago approach to money
II. Gurley and Shaw	c. Weighted sum approach to money
IV. Radcliffe Committee	d. Central bank approach to money

A. (I-a) (II-b) (III-c) (IV-d)
B. (I-b) (II-a) (III-d) (IV-c)
C. (I-a) (II-c) (III-b) (IV-d)
D. (I-b) (II-a) (III-c) (IV-d)

Q14. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statements
I. Currency coins are produced and circulated by the Government of India.
II. Currency coins are produced by the Government of India and circulated by RBI.

A. I is false and II is not true
B. I is true and II is not true
C. I is not true and II is not false
D. I is not false and II is false

Explanation
Coins are minted by the Government of India.
They are put into circulation through RBI.
Thus:
Statement I → False
Statement II → True

Q15. One of the following is NOT a type of budget deficit.

A. Revenue Deficit
B. Fiscal Deficit
C. Overhead Deficit
D. Primary Deficit

Explanation
Recognized budget deficits are:
Revenue Deficit
Fiscal Deficit
Primary Deficit
There is no concept of "Overhead Deficit" in public finance.

Q16. Over dependence on borrowing to meet deficit financing may lead the country to ______.

A. Debt Trap
B. Revenue Trap
C. Financial Trap
D. Deficit Trap

Explanation
If a government borrows continuously, it may eventually need new loans just to repay old loans and interest.
This situation is called a Debt Trap.

Q17. The commercial banks rush to purchase new securities and treasury bills because

A. Securities are not always available
B. Banks want to invest in low income
C. Securities can enhance capital
D. Banks will have to comply upon statutory requirements

Explanation:

Banks invest in Government Securities and Treasury Bills mainly to meet Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirements prescribed by RBI.
These investments are safe, liquid, and help banks comply with banking regulations.

Q18. If we deduct the interest component from fiscal deficit, we will obtain ______.

A. Primary Deficit
B. Budget Deficit
C. Fiscal Deficit
D. Revenue Deficit

Explanation:
Formula: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
Primary deficit shows the current year's borrowing requirement excluding interest payments on previous debt.

Q19. One of the following is not a source of non-tax revenue of the government.

A. External Grants
B. Profit of Public Sector Units
C. Dividend of the Company
D. Customs Duties

Explanation
Non-Tax Revenue includes:
External grants
Dividends
Profits from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
Fees and fines
Customs Duty is a tax revenue, not a non-tax revenue.

Q20. Which of the following statements are not false with reference to the store of value function of money?
Statements

I. Production and consumption of goods and services are not instantaneous.
II. Certainty of life.
III. Accumulative nature of people.
IV. Uncertainty of life.

A. II, III and IV
B. I, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II and III

Explanation
The store of value function means money can be saved for future use.
I Correct – Production and consumption happen at different times.
II Incorrect – Life is not certain.
III Correct – People like to accumulate wealth.
IV Correct – Uncertainty encourages saving.

Q21. Fisher's Equation of Quantity Theory is ______.

A. Based on Liquidity Preference
B. A Mathematical Truism
C. Related to Wealth of Wealth Holders
D. Related to Aggregate Savings

Explanation
Fisher's Equation:
where:
M = Money Supply
V = Velocity of Money
P = Price Level
T = Volume of Transactions
It is called a mathematical truism because it is an accounting identity.

Q22. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. Increase in REPO Rate leads to increase in money supply.
II. Increase in REPO Rate leads to decrease in money supply.
III. Increase in REPO Rate leads to increase in interest rate.
IV. Increase in REPO Rate represents Tight Money Policy.

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I and III

Explanation
When the RBI increases the Repo Rate:
Borrowing becomes expensive.
Banks lend less.
Money supply decreases.
Interest rates increase.
This is called a Tight Money Policy.
Therefore:
I False
II True
III True
IV True

Q23. The Bank Rate Policy will be effective if there is ______.

A. Cordial relationship between banks and RBI
B. Favorable economic environment
C. Efficient banking system
D. All of the above

Explanation
For Bank Rate Policy to work effectively:
Banks should cooperate with RBI.
The banking system should be efficient.
Economic conditions should support policy transmission.
All these factors are necessary.

Q24. Which of the following are the basic limitations of commodity money?

I. Heterogeneity
II. Non-divisibility
III. Enforceability
IV. Difficult to store

A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV

Explanation
Limitations of commodity money include:
Lack of uniformity (heterogeneity)
Difficulty in dividing
Difficulty in storage
Enforceability is not a limitation of commodity money.

Q25. The formula to calculate the Credit Multiplier (Cm) is ______.

A. Cm = (AID − AR) / AR
B. Cm = ACC / A
C. Cm = (1 − r) / r
D. All of the above

Explanation
These are different forms used in textbooks to express the concept of the credit multiplier, depending on the notation adopted.
The commonly used form is:
Hence, the expected answer is All of the Above.

Q26. According to Keynes, the following statement(s) are true.

I. Transaction Demand and Precautionary Demand are known and already determined.
II. The precautionary demand for money is volatile in nature.
III. If the interest rate is expected to increase, the speculators would hold more idle cash.
IV. Interest rate and bond prices are directly related.

A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III

Explanation
I Transaction and precautionary demand mainly depend on income and are generally predictable.
II Precautionary demand can vary depending on uncertainty.
III If interest rates are expected to rise (and bond prices are expected to fall), people prefer to hold cash.
IV Incorrect. Interest rates and bond prices are inversely, not directly, related.

Q27. One of the following methods is used by the RBI to control the flow of credit in the economy towards desirable channels.

A. Open Market Operation
B. Bank Rate Policy
C. Margin Requirements
D. Variable Reserve Ratio

Explanation
The RBI uses Selective (Qualitative) Credit Control to direct credit to priority sectors.
Margin Requirement is a selective credit control method.
Quantitative methods include:
Open Market Operation
Bank Rate
Variable Reserve Ratio (CRR/SLR)
Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Q28. One of the following is not an objective of Fiscal Policy.

A. Exchange Rate Stability
B. Equality of Income Distribution
C. Price Stability
D. High Economic Growth

Explanation
Objectives of Fiscal Policy include:
Economic Growth
Price Stability
Employment
Reduction of Income Inequality
Exchange Rate Stability is mainly achieved through Monetary Policy and foreign exchange management, not fiscal policy.

Q29. Which of the following is/are the source of money supply in India?

A. RBI
B. Commercial Banks
C. Government of India
D. All of the Above

Explanation
Money supply comes from:
RBI (currency notes)
Commercial Banks (credit creation)
Government of India (coins and fiscal operations)
Hence, All of the Above.

Q30. Following statements are true about Government Expenditures.

I. Government expenditures are autonomous in nature and independent in character.
II. Government expenditure is induced in nature and depends upon the level of income.
III. Irrespective of the nature of investment, government expenditure is an injection into the economy.

A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II and III

Explanation
Statement I True
Statement II False (Government expenditure is generally autonomous, not induced.)
Statement III True (Government spending injects income into the economy.)

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

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