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Thursday, November 17, 2022

Elements of Economic Theory Mcqs

November 17, 2022 0
Elements of Economic Theory Mcqs
F.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 1

ELEMENTS OF ECONOMIC THEORY
(EET)
MCQS - 5 March 2022

1. Which of the following is correct in the context of Marshallian Utility analysis?

A. utility is cardinal
B. utility is ordinal
C. marginal utility of money changes with changes in amount of money with the consumer 
D. utility can only be ranked but not measured

2. Which one is the internal factor affecting pricing policy?

A. Level of Competition in Market
B. Managerial Policy 
C. Business Environment
D. Government Tax policy 

3. In the full cost pricing, which cost is the base of the price?

A. marginal cost
B. average variable cost
C. average cost
D. total cost 

4. Which of these is not a feature of services?

A. lacks physical substance
B. cannot be touched or seen
C. can be experienced
D. is tangible in nature 

5. When the value of income elasticity of demand is higher, the income-demand curve will be

A. flatter 
B. steeper
C. vertical
D. horizontal

6. Which of these is not a feature of perfect competition?

A. homogeneous product
B. free entry and exit
C. seller is price maker 
D. perfect information

7. Mobile phones becoming as important as food, clothing and shelter implies that

A. wants differ in intensity
B. wants multiply with civilization 
C. wants are insatiable
D. wants are subjective in nature

8. Statement I: In economic theory, normal profits form a part of business firm's cost of production. 
Statement II: An accountant includes only explicit costs in cost calculation

A. both statements are true
B. both statements are false
C. statement I is true, statement II is false 
D. statement I is false, statement Il is true

9. Which of these is a central problem of an economy?

A. How to maximize profits
B. What to produce? 
C. How to maximize satisfaction
D. When to produce?

10. Which of these statements is true?

A. the total fixed cost curve is a vertical straight line with output measured on the x axis
B. the average fixed cost curve is a U shaped
C. the total fixed cost is upward sloping straight line
D. the average cost curve is U shaped 

11. Specific demand function is one which relates

A. quantity demanded to the price of the good, prices of related goods income of the consumer, tastes and preferences of the consumer, etc. 
B. quantity demanded to the price of the good
C. quantity demanded of a good to specific market only
D. quantity demanded of a good to specific consumer only

12. Which of these statements is correct?

A. when the long run average cost curve is falling, it will cut through the short run average cost curves
B. when the plant size is optimum, the long run average cost curve will cut the short run average cost curve
C. when the plant size is optimum, the minimum point of one short run average cost curve and of the long run average cost curve will be common
D. long run average curve will intersect the lowest short run average cost curve 

13. Following are the three time periods referred to with reference to the determination of market price except:

A. market period
B. short run 
C. medium run
D. long run

14. Jacob Viner defined economics as

A. study of scarcity
B. study of wealth
C. what economists do 
D. study of welfare

15. In the Robbins' definition of Economics, the term 'means' refers to

A. wants
B. alternative uses
C. meaning
D. resources 

16. Which of these statements is true?

A. In perfect competition, the total revenue curve is linear in nature 
B. In imperfect competition, the total revenue curve is linear in nature
C. In imperfect market, there are no restrictions on entry/exit
D. in perfectly competitive market, information is hard to get

17. Which definition of economics gives due importance to the element of time?

A. wealth definition
B. welfare definition
C. growth definition  
D. scarcity definition

18. Which of these is incorrect with reference to the algebraic demand function?

A. the price coefficient is positive
B. price appears on the left hand side of the equation
C. price appears on the right hand side of the equation 
D. quantity demand appears on the right hand side of the equation

19. When the price of good X increased from Rs.600 to Rs.650, its demand decreased from 200 units to 188 units. What is its price elasticity of demand?

A. 0.72
B. 0.88
C. 0.56 
D. 0.65

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Saturday, October 1, 2022

Structure & Process of Business Mcqs

October 01, 2022 0
Structure & Process of Business Mcqs
F.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 1
 

STRUCTURE & PROCESS OF BUSINESS
(SPB)
MCQS: UNIT 1

1. One of the social objective of business is

(a) Avoidance of customers
(b) Development of skilled personnel’s
(c) Fair dealing with employees
(d) Supply of desired quality of goods

2. For the success of business all the marketing plans and policies must be

(a) Objective oriented
(b) Nation oriented
(c) Customer oriented
(d) Vision oriented

3. Business is a human activity directed towards

(a) Acquisition of social stability
(b) Acquisition of wealth
(c) Acquisition of profit
(d) Acquisition of market

4. As a result of industrial revolution there was a transformation from

(a) Simple to capitalist economy
(b) Natural to commercial economy
(c) Natural to capitalist economy
(d) Socialist to capitalist economy

5. Which of the following is part of Human Occupation ?

(a) Professions
(b) Business
(c) Employment
(d) All of the above

6. Assembly line activities are also kind of ______.

(a) Construction industries
(b) Commerce
(c) Manufacturing industries
(d) Trade

7. Interest cannot be transferred in case of _________.

(a) Professions
(b) Business
(c) Employment
(d) None of these

8. Individual Risk is a part of Activities in case of _________.

(a) Professions
(b) Business
(c) Employment
(d) a and b both

9. Foreign trade includes ______.

(a) Import trade
(b) Export trade
(c) Entrepot trade
(d) All of the above

10. A refrigerator operating in a chemist’s shop is an example of

(a) Free good
(b) Final good
(c) Intermediate good
(d) Consumers good

11. What is an economic activity ?

(a) Activity undertaken in expectation of economic return
(b) Activity undertaken for providing service
(c) Activity undertaken for services and economic return
(d) Activity undertaken as a result of love and affection.

12. What is a non-economic activity ?

(a) Activity done in expectation of earning
(b) Activity done in expectation of economic return
(c) Activity done for social services
(d) Activity done in expectation of return and services

13. How many types of economic activities are there ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

14. Business is done with ______

(a) Profit objective
(b) Service motive
(c) Fee objective
(d) Remuneration motive

15. Profession is done with ______

(a) Profit objective
(b) Service motive
(c) Fee objective
(d) Remuneration motive

16. From the following, which characteristic is not of the business ?

(a) Profit objective
(b) Risk
(c) Definite return
(d) Economic activity

17. In which field, India has got the place from the following ?

(a) Transportation
(b) Insurance
(c) Medicine
(d) Information

18. From the following, which activity is not economic activity ?

(a) Business Activity
(b) Lawyer e
(c) Social Worker
(d) Doctor

19. From the following which activity is out side the scope of Human Occupation ?

(a) The Sachin Tendulkar, playing international cricket.
(b) Anna’s hunger strike
(c) Mukesh Ambani coming to IPCL
(d) Dr. Anand going to his hospital

20. By which name the production activity known ?

(a) Industry
(b) Business
(c) Trade
(d) Employment

21. Which is trade facilitating services ?

(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Industry
(d) Profession

22. What is meant by the exchange of product in lieu of finance ?

(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Industry
(d) Profession

23. How many types of trade are there ?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four 

24. What is main characteristics of trade ?

(a) Buyer
(b) Seller
(c) Purchase seller
(d) Agent

25. Purchase and sale for the purpose of profit means ______.

(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Industry
(d) Profession

26. Industry dong the process on the material obtained from the nature means ______.

(a) Modern industry
(b) Primary industry
(c) Labour oriented
(d) Secondary industry

27. Which of the following is or are the economic objective of business ?

(a) Profit
(b) Creation of customer
(c) Innovation
(d) All of these

28. Where did the industrial revolution start ?

(a) England
(b) USA
(c) Germany
(d) India

29. Which is dependent economic activity ?

(a) Business
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) Service

30. Industrial revolution refers to a series of remarkable change in ______ industries during 1760 to 1830.

(a) British Industries
(b) American Industries
(c) African Industries
(d) Asian Industries 

31. Before industrial revolution, there was an existence of ______ economy.

(a) Capitalist
(b) National
(c) Socialist
(d) Political

32. A business enterprise is an ______ entity.

(a) Commercial
(b) Social
(c) Natural
(d) Organic

33. Genetic industries are relocated with ______ organisms.

(a) Living
(b) Static
(c) Mechanical
(d) Chemical

34. ______ are those occupations which involve the rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature.

(a) Business
(b) Employment
(c) Professions
(d) Adventure

35. The marketing plans and policies of today are ______ centered and not ______ centered.

(a) Customer, Product
(b) Product, Customer
(c) Profit, Product
(d) Profit, Customer 

36. Which of the following is / are true about industrial revolution. 

(i) Money become supreme
(ii) Personal skill was given more importance
(iii) Concentration of factors of production in few hands
(iv) Slums area

(a) All above
(b) Only (i) & (iv)
(c) Only (i) & (ii)
(d) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)

37. Industry mean that part of business activity which is concerned with

(i) Raising
(ii) Production
(iii) Processing
(iv) Fabrication of products 

(a) All above
(b) Only (i), (ii) & (iii) a
(c) None of the above
(d) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)

38. It is the duty of every business to satisfy the national needs by

(i) Production according to national priorities
(ii) Development of small entrepreneurs
(iii) Fair deal to employees
(iv) Creation of customers

(a) Only (i) & (ii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) All above
(d) Only (i), (iii) & (iv)

39. Which of the followings is /are not the essentials of business

(i) Location, layout and size
(ii) Planning
(iii) Family planning
(iv) Independent department

(a) only (i)
(b) only (i), (ii) & (iii)
(c) only (iii) & (iv)
(d) only (iii)

40. ________ Involves transfer, sale or exchange of goods and services to satisfy the needs of customers.

(a) Business
(b) Employment
(c) Professions
(d) Adventure

41. It is ______ obligation of business not to indulge in malpractices such as hoarding and black marketing.

(a) Organic
(b) Social
(c) National
(d) Economic

42. The ______ objective of business arises from the expectations of the human beings performing business operations.

(a) Human
(b) National
(c) Social
(d) Organic

43. The ______ was a phenomenon which radically altered the whole system of procedure.

(a) Market Revolution
(b) Product Revolution
(c) Country Revolution
(d) Industrial Revolution

44. The business cycles are also known as

(a) Trade Cycle
(b) Depression Cycles
(c) Prosperity cycles
(d) Waste Cycles

45. The intangible and invisible goods supplied by business concerns which can not be stored by the consumer is known as :

(a) Producers goods
(b) Consumer goods
(c) Services
(d) None of the above

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Sunday, August 14, 2022

Business English & Communication Mcqs

August 14, 2022 0
Business English & Communication Mcqs
F.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 1

BUSINESS ENGLISH & COMMUNICATION
(BEC)
MCQS: 03-03-2022

For more Mcqs in this Subject click here: 


1. Choose from the following options the one word that will fit between- Mint and Mouse, using dictionary Skills

A. Mister 
B. Must
C. Much
D. Met

2. Choose from the following options one of the language functions.

A. Directive Function 
B. Assertive Function
C. Diplomatic Function
D. Coercive Function

3. Choose from the following options the synonym of the word-hurry.

A. Cover
B. Employ
C. Obtain
D. Hasten 

4. Identify the most appropriate pair from the following options that indicates types of Feedback.

A. Large and small 
B. Direct and indirect
C. High and low
D. Pre and post

5. Identify the verb in the following sentence: He returned from Germany last weekend.

A. Returned
B. he
C. Germany
D. Weekend

6. Fill in the blank: Formation of a new word by taking the initial of every word in a title or phrase is called __________.

A. Acronym
B. Homonym
C. Homophone
D. Homograph

7. What would you call the words which have the same spelling but, different meanings and pronunciations?

A. Homonyms
B. Homophones
C. Homostars
D. Homographs  

8. Fill in the blank: ________ decodes the message.

A. Sender  
B. Receiver 
C. Channel
D. Author 

9. Choose from the following options an example of intrapersonal communication.

A. Self Talk 
B. Meeting
C. Interview 
D. Dialogue

10. Fill in the blank: _________ comes from the Greek word haphe meaning touch.

A. Haptics 
B. Proxamics
C. Chronomics
D. Kinesics

11. Fill in the blank: Unwillingness to communicate on the part of subordinates is an example of _________ barrier.

A. Personal Barrier
B. Physical Barrier
C. Organisational Barrier
D. Semantic Barrier

12. The word dialect come from the ancient Greek word __________.

A. Dialektos 
B. Dial
C. Discuss
D. Discourse

13. "Why don't you come tomorrow ...Kal aa jao na...." is an example of __________.

A. Code mixing
B. Code switching 
C. Creole
D. Pidgin

14. Identify from the following options one of the factors that may become a Biological Barrier.

A. Migraine  
B. Lack of Focus
C. Personality Style
D. Attitude

15. Choose a blended word from the following options.

A. Compete
B. Brunch 
C. Break
D. Brisk

16. Fill in the blank: barriers are attributed to a person's health and fitness.

A. Physiological 
B. Psychological
C. Physical
D. Semantic

17. Choose a derived word from the following options.

A. Zigzag
B. Ticktock
C. Happiness 
D. Smog

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Friday, May 13, 2022

Developing Communication Skills in English Mcqs

May 13, 2022 0
Developing Communication Skills in English Mcqs
F.Y B.COM
SEMESTER 1

DEVELOPING COMMUNICATION SKILLS IN ENGLISH
(DCSE)
MCQS: 24-2-2020

For more Mcqs in this Subject click here:


1. Identify from the options given below the type of listening based on the participation of receiver.

A. Sensitive Listening 
B. Listening for specific information
C. Listening for inference 
D. Emphatic Listening

2. What is the one word for a speech presented by an individual? 

A. Dialect 
B. Dialogue 
C. Monolith 
D. Monologue

3. Identify from the options given below, the word in which consonant sound becomes silent during pronunciation.

A. 'b' as in climb
B. 'g' as in brag
C. 'p' as in gypsy 
D. 'a' as in bare

4. Identify from the given options the one sentence which will be used to introduce oneself.

A. Pleased to meet you, he is Rishabh Modi 
B. Have you met Angha? She is the marketing
C. Hi I how are you?
D. It is a pleasure to meet you, I am Nerada manager. Panchal

5. Read the sentence given below and choose the language function that it indicates. It sounds doable.

A. Introducing yourself 
B. Introducing others 
C. How to say 'yes'
D. None

6. What is the full name of RK Narayan?

A. Rajan Krishnan Narayan Prasad 
B. Rasipuram Krishnaswami lyer Narayanaswami
C. Rasipuram Krishnan lyer Narayan 
D. Rasipuram Krishnan Narayanaswami

7. Choose from the following options the man eater in the short story- The Tiger's Claws.

A. The Talkative Man 
B. R K Narayan 
C. Porter 
D. Tiger

8. Identify the adjective from the sentence given below and choose the most appropriate option from those given underneath. The fact is that the soup offered is not edible.

A. That 
B. Soup 
C. Edible
D. Fact

9. What was the name of the forest where the tiger used to live in the short story- The Tiger's Claws?

A. Koppal 
B. Mempi 
C. Kanpur 
D. Memphi

10. Read the sentence given below and identify the type of sentence that it signifies from the options given underneath Amit did not attend the meeting.

A. Declarative Sentence 
B. Imperative Sentence 
C. Interrogative Sentence
D. Exclamatory Sentence

11. Identify an adverb from the sentence given below and choose the most appropriate option from underneath Anupam shouted loudly to attract people's attention.

A. Shouted 
B. Attract
C. Loudly 
D. Attention 

12. Choose the meaning of the adjective Dingy from the options given below.

A. Light 
B. Gloomy
C. Lurch 
D. Sudden

13. Identify the closed question from the options given below.

A. Why did you leave the car? 
B. Is there any news? 
C. How did this happen? 
D. Where is the venue?

14. Identify an independent clause from the following options.

A. Although I am hungry 
B. I can wait a few hours more
C. Whoever is doing this 
D. When I came back from the shop 

15. Identify the adjective in the sentence given below and choose from the options given underneath.
He has used meaningless sentences to express his anger. 

A. Used 
B. Express 
C. Meaningless 
D. Anger

16. Read the statements given below and identify the correct option from those given underneath.
A. The goal of intensive reading is to read in detail with specific learning
B. Focus of intensive reading is on themes and topics of the text. 

A. Only statement A is correct. 
B. Only statement B is correct.
C. Both the statements A and B are correct.
D. Both the statements A and B are incorrect.

17. Choose the correct option from the following that denotes the objective of extensive reading.

A. Obtaining pleasure from the text 
B. Having deeper understanding of the text
C. Identifying the main ideas in the text
D. Making inferences from the text 

18. Identify the technique of reading from the options given below.

A. Predicting 
B. Skimming 
C. Previewing 
D. Word association

19. Identify the style of reading from the options given below. 

A. Scanning 
B. Skimming 
C. Questioning 
D. Informing

20. Fill in the blank: Scanning helps to get an ________ of the text.

A. Focus 
B. Technique 
C. Overview 
D. Analysis 

21. What is the full form of Q in SQ4R technique of reading?

A. Quorum 
B. Quora 
C. Question 
D. Quest

22. Identify the author of the short story The Eyes Hove it from the following options.

A. R K Narayan 
B. Rushdie Band 
C. Ruskin Bond 
D. James Bond

23. Fill in the blank the idiom-Crocodile Tears is an example of ________.

A. Figurative idiom 
B. Prepositional idiom
C. Verbal idiom 
D. Clausal idiom

24. Fill in the blank: The idiom put up with him is an example of ________.

A. Figurative idiom 
B. Prepositional idiom
C. Pronoun idiom 
D. Noun idiom

25. Identify a complex sentence from the following options. 

A. We are defeated but not disgraced
B. The match was cancelled
C. I knew that he is a fraud
D. She informed me

26. Choose the meaning of the idiom to cook the books from the given options. 

A. Falsify financial records
B. Useless search
C. Destroy someone's reputation 
D. Possess bookish knowledge

27. Choose from the following options the meaning of the word Confusion 

A. Falsify 
B. Decide 
C. Uncertainty 
D. Unfortunate 

28. Fill in the blank Reading comprehension can be improved by __________.

A. Predicting 
B. Viewing 
C. Marking 
D. Resorting

29. Where was the girl in the story- The Eyes Have It going to get off?

A. Dehra 
B. Dehradun 
C. Mussoorie 
D. Saharanpur

30. Choose the most appropriate meaning of the word-Gallant from the options given below.

A. Brave 
B. Humble 
C. Modest 
D. Rage

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Sunday, April 17, 2022

Macro Economics Theory Mcqs

April 17, 2022 1
Macro Economics Theory Mcqs
S.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 3

MACRO ECONOMICS THEORY
(MET)
MCQS: 19 JANUARY 2022

For more Mcqs in this Subject click here:


1. While we calculate National Income through Value Added method, we do not include one of the following components:

A. Purchase of second hand goods
B. Imputed rent values of self occupied houses
C. Value of Production for self
consumption
D. Net Factor Income from Abroad

2. In consumption line C=a+ b.Y, what does 'b' denote?

A. Slope of consumption curve
B. Multiplier of Income
C. Marginal Propensity to Save
D. Average Propensity to Consume

3. Which of the following do economists view as investment spending?

A. Spending on physical capital
B. Stocks
C. Bonds
D. Mutual fund investing

4. National Income at Factor Cost can be defined as:

A. Net National Product - Net Indirect
Taxes
B. Gross National Product - Net
Indirect Taxes
C. Net National Product - Total
Indirect Taxes
D. Net National Product - Subsidies.

5. In classical economics sense Y=C+I can be re written as:

A. Y=C+S
B. Y=S+I
C. Y+C =S
D. Y+I=S+I

6. The marginal propensity to consume is defined as ____________.

A. The change in consumer spending
divided by the change in aggregate
disposable income.
B. The change in saving minus change
in investment.
C. The proportion of total disposable
income that the average family
consumes.
D. The change in consumer spending
minus the change in aggregate
disposable income.

7. Suppose that the aggregate consumption function is given by the equation: C = 200+0.8YD, where C represents consumption and YD represents disposable income. If disposable income is Rs. 500, aggregate consumption is:

A. Rs. 600
B. Rs. 200
C. Rs. 500
D. Rs. 400

8. While we calculate National Income through Expenditure method, we should include one of the following components:

A. Private expenditure on goods and
services
B. Purchase of Shares and Bonds
C. Transfer Payments
D. Expenditure on Intermediate Goods

9. When a government adopts a balance budget policy it spends only as much as it collects through

A. taxation
B. exports
C. bonds
D. foreign direct investments

10. Classical economists treated money as _____________. 

A. Medium of Exchange
B. Store of value
C. Means of deferred payment
D. Measure of Value

11. If NDP at factor cost is Rs. 210 million and Indirect taxes, Rs. 51 million, GNP at Market prices is Rs. 610 million, the value of NDP at market prices will be Rs. __________ million.

A. Rs. 261 million
B. Rs. 820 million
C. Rs. 271 million
D. Rs. 539 million

12. If for an economy, GDP at market Prices is Rs. 3094 million, Net Indirect Taxes is Rs. 564 million and Capital consumption allowance is Rs. 342 million, the value of GDP at factor cost would be Rs. _________ million

A. Rs. 2530 million
B. Rs. 4000 million
C. Rs. 3436 million
D. Rs. 3658 million

13. 'An individual will usually see a 10% cut to nominal wages as unfair, but the same proportion of price rise would not be fiercely contested'. The statement is best reflected in the following terms:

A. Money Illusion
B. Price Illusion
C. Output Illusion
D. Income Illusion

14. In a simple model of Keynes income determination, import is assumed to be a function of the following (identify correct ones) 
I. Autonomous Import 
II. National Income 
III. Investment
IV. Government Expenditure

A. I & II
B. I, II & III
C. II, III & IV
D. II & III

15. 'Saving is good for individuals but not so good for the society as a whole as it ends up in lowering standard of living, income, and output'. This phenomena is called ____________. 

A. Paradox of Thrift
B. Paradox of Wage and employment
C. Paradox of Income and Saving
D. Paradox of Consumption

16. In the context of classical macro economics, the demand and supply of labour together can determine the following:

A. Real Wages, Employment and Real Output
B. Real Wages and Real Unemployment
C. Nominal Wages, Nominal Employment and Nominal Output
D. Production function, Income and Output

17. The rational expectation theory is different from Keynesian Theory in the sense that ____________. 

A. Whatever happens in the economy cannot be correctly predicted by the people
B. Involuntary unemployment cannot prevail
C. Producers and consumers adjust their behaviour rapidly.
D. Producers and consumers are able to collect necessary information

18. Keynesian explanation of a deficiency in aggregate demand originated from __________.

A. Real time experience of Great Depression
B. Severe inflation in the post war situation
C. Say's Law of Market
D. Pigou's explanation of wage flexibility.

19. If we apply Say's Law of Market in a monetized economy we would be closer to explain ____________. 

A. Two Sector Circular Flow Model
B. Marginal Productivity Theory of Wages
C. Principle of Effective Demand
D. Wage Price rigidity.

20. The national income under four sector model is less than that of under three sector model because ____________. 

A. Import is also function of national income
B. Import is autonomous
C. Export is autonomous
D. Export is also function of national income

22. One of the following is not a key feature of Keynesian Theory

A. Rate of Interest is a reward for saving
B. Under employment is a normal situation in the economy
C. Wages are rigid downwards and flexible upwards
D. There is only indirect relationship between money supply and price level.

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Monday, March 28, 2022

Elements of Indirect Taxes Mcqs

March 28, 2022 0
Elements of Indirect Taxes Mcqs
S.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 4

ELEMENTS OF INDIRECT TAXES
(EIDT)
MCQS: UNIT - 1 

1. An Integrated GST (IGST) would be collected by the _____________.

(a) State Government 
(b) Central Government
(c) Local authority 
(d) None

2. Import of goods would be treated as ____________.

(a) Inter - State supplies 
(b) intra – State supplies 
(c) purchase of goods 
(d) none

3. Import of goods would be treated as inter - state supplies and would be subject to ________ in addition to the applicable ____________.

(a) IGST, Excise duty 
(b) IGST, Custom duty 
(c) IGST, SGST 
(d) All of the above

4. GST would apply to all goods and services except _______________.

(a) Alcohol for human consumption 
(b) Electronic items
(c) Computer software 
(d) All of the above

5. GST on __________ would be applicable from a date to be recommended by the GSTC.

(a) Crude 
(b) Petrol & Diesel 
(c) ATF& Natural gas
(d) All of the above

6. Exports would be ____________.

(a) Zero – rated
(b) Exempted 
(c) Taxable 
(d) None

7. Various modes of payment of tax available to the taxpayer including __________.

(a) internet banking, 
(b) debit/ credit card 
(c) NEFT / RTGS 
(d) All of the above

8. Limitation period for raising demand is _____________ in normal cases.

(a) three (3) years 
(b) five (5) years 
(c) two (2) years 
(d) none

9. Limitation period for raising demand is _____________in case of fraud, suppression or willful mis-statement.

(a) three (3) years 
(b) five (5) years 
(c) two (2) years 
(d) none

10. Goods means every kind of movable property other than__________.

(a) Money and Securities
(b) Actionable a Claim
(c) Growing crops, grass etc. 
(d) All of the above

11. Actionable claim other than lottery, betting and gambling will not be treated as supply of goods or services by virtue of _________.

(a) Schedule II
(b) Schedule III
(c) Schedule L 
(d) None

12. Goods includes ____________.

(a) Actionable claims 
(b) License, copyright and carbon
(c) Money 
(d) (a) And (b)

13. “Supplier” in relation to any goods or services or both shall mean –

(a) The person supplying the said goods or services or both
(b) Agent acting on behalf of such supplier in relation to the goods or services or both supplied.
(c) Both
(d) None

14. Services means anything other than _________.

(a) Goods, Money and Securities
(b) Activities relating to the use of money
(c) Both 
(d) None

15. Taxable event of GST is ____________.

(a) Supply of goods or services or both 
(b) Supply of goods or services
(c) Supply of goods 
(d) None

16. Supply Includes _________.

(a) Sale and transfer 
(b) Barter and exchange,
(c) License, rental, lease or disposal
(d) All of the above

17. Supply includes __________.

(a) Import of service for a consideration whether or not in the course of furtherance of business.
(b) The activities specified in schedule L, made or agreed to be made without a consideration.
(c) The activities to be treated as supply of goods or supply of services as referred to in Schedule - II.
(d) All of the above

18. Which of the following shall be treated neither as a supply of goods nor a supply of service.

(a) Activities or transactions specified in schedule III.
(b) Activities or transactions notified by the government on the recommendations of the council.
(c) Both
(d) None

19. “Taxable person” means a person who is registered or liable to be registered under section __________.

(a) Section 22 
(b) Section 24
(c) Section 22 or 24
(d) None

20. The charging section for levy and collection of CGST is __________ of CGST Act, 2017.

(a) Section 15
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 7
(d) Section 10

21. CGST would be levied on the value determined under __________.

(a) Section 15
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 7 
(d) Section 10

22. CGST would be levied at such rates, __________, as may be notified by the government on the recommendations of the council.

(a) not exceeding 20% 
(b) not exceeding 18% 
(c) 18% 
(d) 20%

23. If the levy of tax is in the hands of the supplier it is referred to as tax under _____________.

(a) forward charge mechanism
(b) reverse charge mechanism
(c) partly forward and partly reverse 
(d) none

24. If the levy of tax is in the hands of recipient, it is referred to as tax under _____________.

(a) forward charge mechanism
(b) reverse charge mechanism
(c) partly forward and partly reverse 
(d) none

25. Every supplier is liable to be registered under the CGST Act, if the aggregate turnover in a financial year exceeds Rs. ______________.

(a) Rs. 20 lakhs
(b) Rs. 10 Lakhs 
(c) Rs. 9 Lakhs 
(d) Rs. 25 Lakhs

26. In case of special states, every supplier is liable to be registered under the CGST Act, if the aggregate turnover in a financial year exceeds Rs. ______________.

(a) Rs. 20 lakhs
(b) Rs. 10 Lakhs
(c) Rs. 9 Lakhs 
(d) Rs. 25 Lakhs

27. Tax is nothing but ___________ that people have to pay to the government, which is used to provide Public services.

(a) Money
(b) Property 
(c) Wealth 
(d) None of these

28. The incidence of indirect tax borne by ___________. 

(a) producer
(b) consumer
(c) Retailer 
(d) wholesaler

29. Income tax is which type of tax ?

(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax 
(c) Both A & B 
(d) None of these

30. What is the rate of ‘KKC’ ?

(a) 5% 
(b) 1% 
(c) 2.5%
(d) 0.5%

31. Import of services would be subject to ________.

(a) CGST
(b) UTGST
(c) IGST
(d) SGST

32. GST would apply to all goods & services except which item ?

(a) Gold 
(b) Diamond
(c) Alcohol
(d) All of these

33. What is the rate of SBC ?

(a) 0.5%
(b) 5% 
(c) 1% 
(d) 2%

34. The provision of section 2 (109) is applicable to ________. 

(a) Person 
(b) Manufacturer 
(c) Good
(d) Taxable Territory

35. A person who is registered or liable to be registered under section 22 or 24 is known as __________. 

(a) Taxable person
(b) Professional 
(c) Individual 
(d) Association of person

36. Buying a new refrigerator in exchange of old refrigerator is which type of transaction ?

(a) Sale & transfer 
(b) Barter & Exchange 
(c) lease Rentral 
(d) License

37. Everything received or recoverable in return for supply of goods or services or both is known as _________. 

(a) Deposit
(b) Consideration 
(c) Business 
(d) None of these

38. To attract GST, supply has to be made by _____________.

(a) Any person 
(b) Dealer
(c) Taxable person
(d) All of these

39. Anything other than Goods, money and securities known as __________.

(a) Services
(b) Supplier 
(c) Both A & B
(d) None of thses

40. Supply of goods & services or both which is leviable to tax is known as __________.

(a) Taxable Territory 
(b) Taxable person 
(c) Taxable supply 
(d) All of these

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