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INSURANCE PRODUCT - ASSIGNMENT AND NOMINATION MCQS

June 17, 2021 0
INSURANCE PRODUCT -  ASSIGNMENT AND NOMINATION MCQS
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 6

INSURANCE PRODUCT
(IP)
MCQS -  ASSIGNMENT AND
NOMINATION

(1) Life insurance policy is a ________ of the policy holder.

(a) Asset
(b) Liability 
(c) debt 
(d) none of these

(2) ______ can transfer the rights, title and interest in the life insurance policy to the assignee.

(a) Assignee 
(b) assignor 
(c) insurance company
(d) heirs of the policy holder

(3) Assignment means _______ of rights, title and interest in the property from the assignor to assignee.

(a) purchase 
(b) sale 
(c) transfer
(d) none of above

(4) According to Insurance Act, ________ Section _______ transfer or assignment of a life insurance policy can be done by endorsement or an instrument.

(a) 1936; 36 (2) 
(b) 1938; 38 (1) 
(c) 1940; 40 (1) 
(d) 1942; 42 (a)

(5) Transfer or Assignment of life insurance policy can be done by…

(a) Endorsement 
(b) an instrument
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these.

(6) When assignment is done by ___ stamp duty is payable.

(a) Endorsement 
(b) an instrument
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

(7) When assignment is done by _______ stamp duty is not necessary.

(a) Endorsement 
(b) an instrument
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

(8) The endorsement or a separate deed must be signed by _______ or ______.

(a) Assignor; assignee
(b) assignee; insurance company
(c) authorized agent of the transferor; assignee
(d) Assignor; authorized agent of the transferor

(9) _______ must attest the signature of the assignor.

(a) Assignor
(b) assignee
(c) a witness
(d) insurance company

(10) The assignment is complete and effective …

(a) when it is executed and sent to the insurer along with notice
(b) when it is executed and sent to assignor along with notice
(c) when it is executed and sent to assignee along with notice
(d) none of these

(11) The assignment is effective when _______ is delivered to insurer.

(a) assignment
(b) notice
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(12) Upon the receipt of notice the insurer shall ______

(a) record the facts of such transfer or assignment together with dates.
(b) send the assignment to the assignee.
(c) send the notice to the assignor
(d) cancel the policy.

(13) Subject to the terms and condition of the transfer or assignment ______ is entitled to benefits under the policy.

(a) transferee or assignee 
(b) transfer or assigner
(c) insurer
(d) none of these

(14) Assignments are either _________ or ________.

(a) absolute; conditional 
(b) absolute; unconditional
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(15) ________ is a simple way to ensure easy payment.

(a) nomination
(b) assignment
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(16) Nomination can be done …

(a) at the time of proposal 
(b) at any time during the currency of the policy
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(17) ________ can nominate the person or persons, to whom the money shall be paid in the event of his death.

(a) insurer 
(b) nominee 
(c) the policy holder 
(d) assignee

(18) A nomination can be done by _______ or _______.

(a) endorsement 
(b) separate piece of paper
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(19) Nomination must be communicated to _________ and should be registered by ________.

(a) insurer; insurer 
(b) nominee; insurer 
(c) insurer; nominee 
(d) nominator; insurer

(20) Nomination can be cancelled or changed by the policy holder by…

(a) making another endorsement
(b) making a separate piece of paper
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(21) The insurer should send a ________ of having _______ a nomination or change or cancellation.

(a) written acknowledgement; registered 
(b) policy; registered
(c) nomination from; registered
(d) none of these

(22) When a policy is assigned or transferred, the existing nomination is automatically ____.

(a) renewed 
(b) canceled 
(c) done 
(d) none of these

(23) Assignee cannot make a nomination because.......

(a) he is a life assured 
(b) he is an assurer
(c) he is not a life assured 
(d) none of these

(24) When the policy is _______ to the life assured, he will have to make _______.

(a) assigned; a fresh nomination 
(b) reassigned; a fresh nomination
(c) nominated; a fresh assignment 
(d) none of these

(25) A nomination gives the nominee ___ in the event of death of life assured.

(a) the right to receive the policy money.
(b) the right to assign/transfer the rights, title and interest in the policy
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

(26) In case of a minor the policy holder should appoint _______.

(a) nominee 
(b) appointee 
(c) assigner 
(d) assignee

(27) The appointee must affix his signature to the endorsement either in _______ or on the _______.

(a) assignment; nomination 
(b) nomination; assignment
(c) proposal form; text of policy 
(d) none of these

(28) _________has a right to revoke the appointment of the appointee and to appoint a fresh appointee.

(a) Appointee
(b) Nominee 
(c) Assigner 
(d) The assured person

(29) In case of minor the appointee loses his status, when the nominee becomes ________.

(a) insolvent 
(b) appointee 
(c) major
(d) (a) & (b) both

(30) If the nominee is minor and there is no appointee, the claim amount can be paid to only ________ of the deceased policy holder and not to _____.

(a) guardian; the legal heirs 
(b) the legal heirs; guardians
(c) guardian; assignee 
(d) assignee; guardian

(31) Nomination can be done ___ or ___the issue of policy but assignment can be done by ___the issue of the policy only.

(a) after; before; after 
(b) after; after; before
(c) before; before; after 
(d) after; after; afte

(32) Nomination..…, whereas assignment…..

(a) cannot be done by a separate deed; can be done by separate deed
(b) can be done by a separate deed; cannot be done by a separate deed
(c) can be done by a separate deed; can be done by a separate deed
(d) cannot be done by a separate deed; cannot be done by a separate deed

(33) After ________ the policy holder loses control over the policy but after ________ the policy holder retains full control over the policy.

(a) nomination; assignment 
(b) assignment; nomination
(c) nomination; surrender
(d) none of these

(34) After _______ the assignee is the owner of the policy.

(a) nomination
(b) surrender
(c) assignment
(d) none of these

(35) __________ need not be supported by a consideration whereas _________ must be supported by a consideration.

(a) assignment; nomination 
(b) nomination; assignment
(c) surrender; nomination 
(d) nomination; surrender

(36) Nomination _______ witnessed whereas assignment ________ witnessed.

(a) must be; may be 
(b) cannot be; can be
(c) may be; must be 
(d) can be; may be

(37) _________ has no right to sue under policy but ________ has right to sue under the policy.

(a) assignee; nominee 
(b) witness; assignor;
(c) nominee; assignee 
(d) assignor; witness

(38) _________ can be altered by the life insured whereas ________ cannot be cancelled by the life insured / assignor.

(a) assignment; nomination 
(b) nomination; assignment
(c) a separate instrument; assignment
(d) none of these.

(39) If the nominee is minor appointment of _________ is required in case of nomination whereas appointment of _________ is required in the case of assignment.

(a) guardian; appointee 
(b) appointee; guardian
(c) assignee; nominee
(d) none of these

(40) _________ does not get vested interest in the policy whereas _________ acquire interest.

(a) assignee; nominee 
(b) nominee; assignor
(c) assignor; nominee
(d) Nominee; assignee

(41) If the nominee dies after the life assured and before settlement of the claim …

(a) the policy money are deposited in government treasury.
(b) the policy money are payable to the heirs of the nominee.
(c) the policy money are payable to the heirs of the life assured.
(d) none of these

(42) If the assignee dies at any time, the policy money…....

(a) are payable to the heirs of nominee 
(b) are payable to the heirs of assignee
(c) are payable to the heirs of assignor 
(d) are payable to the heirs of nominator

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INSURANCE PRODUCT - MCQS

June 17, 2021 0
INSURANCE PRODUCT - MCQS
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 6

INSURANCE PRODUCT
(IP)
MCQS 

UNIT - 3 LIFE INSURANCE PRODUCTS

TERM LIFE POLICIES

1) Which policy is simplest and cheapest form of life insurance policy ?

(A) Term Life Policy 
(B) Whole Life Policy
(C) Endowment Insurance Policy 
(D) Annuities

2) Term insurance is also known as...............

(A) Property insurance 
(B) Life insurance
(C) Temporary insurance 
(D) None of the above

3) Which of the following is the type of term insurance policies ?

(A) Level benefit term insurance 
(B) Decreasing benefit term insurance
(C) Increasing benefit term insurance 
(D) All of the above

4) In which type of term insurance policy the coverage remains constant throughout the policy ?

(A) Level benefit term insurance 
(B) Decreasing benefit term insurance
(C) Increasing benefit term insurance 
(D) None of these

5) In which type of term insurance policy the coverage keeps on increasing periodically over the term ?

(A) Level benefit term insurance 
(B) Decreasing benefit term insurance
(C) Increasing benefit term insurance 
(D) None of these

6) In which type of term insurance policy the coverage keeps decreasing with the time ?

(A) Level benefit term insurance 
(B) Increasing benefit term insurance
(C) Decreasing benefit term insurance 
(D) None of these

WHOLE LIFE POLICIES

7) Which insurance policy provides life insurance protection over the lifetime of the assured?

(A) Whole life policies 
(B) Level benefit term insurance
(C) Increasing benefit term insurance 
(D) Decreasing benefit term insurance

8) Which type of whole life policy provides surplus such as profits, bonus, dividends, etc.?

(A) Participating whole life policy 
(B) Non-participating whole life policy
(C) Ordinary whole life policy
(D) None of these

9) Which policy is plain vanilla type whole life policy ?

(A) Ordinary whole life insurance 
(B) Limited payment whole life insurance
(C) Convertible whole life insurance 
(D) Increasing whole life insurance

10) Which type of policy can be converted into endowment insurance policy ?

(A) Ordinary whole life insurance 
(B) Limited payment whole life insurance
(C) Convertible whole life insurance 
(D) Increasing whole life insurance

11) In which type of whole life policy the cover under policy increase at a pre-determined level ?

(A) Ordinary whole life insurance 
(B) Limited payment whole life insurance
(C) Convertible whole life insurance
(D) Increasing whole life insurance

ENDOWMENT INSURANCE POLICIES

12) Which insurance policy provides living benefit as well as life insurance ?

(A) Term life insurance 
(B) Whole life insurance
(C) Endowment insurance 
(D) None of these

13) Which insurance policy provides the benefit of accumulating capital and protects the saving of the insured ?

(A) Term life insurance 
(B) Whole life insurance
(C) Endowment insurance 
(D) All of these

14) In which type of endowment policy the sum assured is payable either on survival or death within endowment period ?

(A) Pure endowment 
(B) Joint endowment
(C) Marriage endowment 
(D) All of these

15) Which endowment policy provides cover of risk on two or more lives under single policy ?

(A) Pure endowment 
(B) Joint endowment
(C) Marriage endowment 
(D) None of these

16) Which endowment policy is designed to meet the marriage financing needs of the family member of the policyholder ?

(A) Pure endowment 
(B) Joint endowment
(C) Marriage endowment 
(D) None of the above

17) In which endowment policy the premium during the first five years are very high and from the sixth year it scaled down to 1/3rd of the original premium ?

(A) Jeevan Mitra 
(B) Bhavishya Jeevan Policy
(C) Jeevan Griha 
(D) New Jana Raksha

18) In which type of endowment policy the risk cover will be twice or thrice of the face value of the policy ?

(A) Bhavishya Jeevan 
(B) Jeevan Mitra
(C) Jeevan Griha 
(D) Jeevan Shree

19) Which endowment policy is suitable for agriculturists ?

(A) Jeevan Mitra 
(B) Jeevan Griha 
(C) New Jana Raksha 
(D) Jeevan Shree

20) Which endowment policy provides rider to cover the serious illness ?

(A) Jeevan Mitra 
(B) Jeevan Shree 
(C) New Jana Raksha 
(D) Asha Deep II

21) In which policy the face value of the policy is paid in installments and at the end the
balance being paid on maturity ?

(A) Money Back Plan 
(B) Endowment Plan
(C) Term Life Plan 
(D) Whole Life Plan

22) Which of the following is type of money back plan ?

(A) Jeevan surabhi 
(B) Jeevan sanchay 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

23) .......... is a special type of money back plan designed for females.

(A) Jeevan Surabhi 
(B) Jeevan Sanchay
(C) Jeevan Sneha 
(D) Jeevan Shree

24) Which policy is limited payment whole life policy for the life of the parent ?

(A) Jeevan Aadhar 
(B) Jeevan Sanchay
(C) Jeevan Sneha
(D) Jeevan Shree

25) Which insurance policy provides benefit of joint life assurance for husband and wife ?

(A) Jeevan sathi 
(B) Jeevan saritha 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

ANNUITIES

26) In which type of insurance plan the policyholder regular contributes over a period of time accumulate to form a corpus with the insurer ?

(A) Annuities 
(B) Whole life policy
(C) Term life policy 
(D) Joint life policy

27) In ........... annuities the payments begin within one year of purchase.

(A) Fixed 
(B) Variable 
(C) Deferred 
(D) Immediate

28) In ............. annuity the payment to the annuitant start after a certain deferment period.

(A) Fixed 
(B) Variable 
(C) Deferred 
(D) Immediate

29) ........ annuity assures minimum rate of return.

(A) Fixed 
(B) Variable 
(C) Deferred 
(D) Immediate

30) Which annuity offers a verity of investment fund portfolios ?

(A) Fixed 
(B) Variable 
(C) Deferred 
(D) Immediate

31) Annuities provides Tax benefits u/s ...... of the Income Tac Act, 1961.

(A) 81
(B) 84 
(C) 86 
(D) 88

32) How many options are there in Annuity ?

(A) 4 
(B) 6 
(C) 3 
(D) 5

33) In ........... annuity the annuitant receives income payments for the rest of his/her life.

(A) Single life 
(B) Single life with period certain
(C) Joint and survivor 
(D) Joint and survivor with period certain

34) In .......... annuity the annuitant and the designated joint annuitant will receive income for the rest of their lives.

(A) Single life 
(B) Single life with period certain
(C) Joint and survivor 
(D) Joint and survivor with period certain

35) In .......... annuity, if the annuitant and his/her joint annuitant die before a specific number of payments the beneficiary will receive income for the reminder of the period certain.

(A) Single life 
(B) Single life with period certain
(C) Joint and survivor 
(D) Joint and survivor with period certain

GROUP INSURANCE

36) Which insurance is an extension of individual insurance into class insurance ?

(A) Group insurance 
(B) Life insurance
(C) Mediclaim insurance 
(D) All of these

37) OYTA means...........

(A) Over Your Term Assurance 
(B) One Year’s Term Assurance
(C) Only Year Term Assurance 
(D) None of these

38) Group insurance is a contract between ............ and .............

(A) Insurer, employees 
(B) Insurer, company
(C) Insurer, group 
(D) Insurer, Employer

39) In which year the first group insurance policy was issued ?

(A) 1909 
(B) 1999 
(C) 1911 
(D) 1920

40) ............ insurance is blessing for both employers and employees.

(A) Joint insurance 
(B) Group insurance
(C) Individual insurance 
(D) Life insurance

LAPSE AND NONE FORFEITURE

41) When there is default on the part of policyholder and termination of policy it is called...........

(A) Lapse 
(B) Forfeiture 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

42) The policy conditions provides various safeguards to policyholders when there is premium default, it is called........

(A) Lapse 
(B) Forfeiture 
(C) Non-forfeiture 
(D) None of these

43) Under.............. scheme the policyholder will be required to pay the full arrears but only six monthly premiums, two quarterly premiums, one half yearly premium or half of the yearly premium.

(A) Installment Revival 
(B) Loan cum Revival
(C) Money Back 
(D) None of these

44) In ........... scheme, the arrears required for revival are advanced out of surrender value of the policy as a loan under the policy.

(A) Installment Revival 
(B) Loan cum Revival
(C) Money Back 
(D) None of these

45) In which scheme the survival amount can be adjusted towards the outstanding dues for
revival ?

(A) Installment Revival 
(B) Loan cum Revival
(C) Survival cum Revival 
(D) None of these

CLAIMS

46) ............. is the demand that the insurer should redeem the promise made in the contract.

(A) Lapse 
(B) Forfeiture 
(C) Claim 
(D) Insurance

47) MWP stands for .........

(A) Money With Plan 
(B) Money Without Plan
(C) Married Women’s Property 
(D) None of these

48) If the life assured dies after the date when the survival benefit was due, but before it is settled, the death claim will be paid to .......

(A) Family
(B) Nominee 
(C) Wife 
(D) No one

49) Which money back policy is paid during the currency of the policy, before the date of maturity ?

(A) Survival benefit 
(B) Maturity benefit
(C) Maturity benefit 
(D) None of these

RURAL / SOCIAL INSURANCE PRODUCTS

50) In rural sector, for a life insurer, ........ % in the first financial year going up to the policies written direct in that year.

(A) 5% 
(B) 7% 
(C) 10% 
(D) 12%

51) In general insurance, ......... % in the first financial year of the total gross premium income written direct in that year.

(A) 2% 
(B) 3% 
(C) 5%
 (D) 10%

52) In social sector, what is the obligation of insurer for the first financial year ?

(A) 5000 lives 
(B) 7500 lives 
(C) 10,000 lives 
(D) 15,000 lives

53) In social sector, what is the obligation of insurer for the second financial year ?

(A) 5000 lives 
(B) 7500 lives 
(C) 10,000 lives 
(D) 15,000 lives

54) What is the obligation of insurer in social sector for the third and fourth financial year?

(A) 5000 and 7500 lives 
(B) 7500 and 10,000 lives
(C) 10,000 and 15,000 lives 
(D) 15,000 and 20,000 lives

55) Which scheme provide life insurance protection to the families of Landless agricultural
labourers ?

(A) LALGI 
(B) LALPG 
(C) LLGAI 
(D) None of these

56) Which scheme provides insurance protection to rural and urban persons who are below or marginally at the poverty line ?

(A) Jan Shree BIMA Yojna 
(B) Jivan Shree BIMA Yojna
(C) Landless agricultural labourers group insurance scheme
(D) Social security group insurance scheme

PREMIUM AND BONUSES

57) ............ is the consideration that the policyholder has to pay in order to secure the benefits offered by the insurance contract.

(A) Claim 
(B) Premium 
(C) Fees 
(D) Penalty

ASSIGNMENT

58) When assignor transfers rights, title and interest to the assignee, it is called.......

(A) Assignment 
(B) Claim 
(C) Premium 
(D) Transfer

59) Life insurance policy is an actionable claim as described in ...........

(A) Property Act, 1982 
(B) Companies Act, 2013
(C) IRDA Act 
(D) Transfer of Property Act, 1882

60) Which of the following is type of assignment ?

(A) Absolute 
(B) Conditional 
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of these

NOMINATION

61) ......... is a simple way to ensure easy payment of policy money in the case of a death claim.

(A) Assignment 
(B) Nomination 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

62) ......... gives the nominee the right to receive the policy money in the event of death of the life assured.

(A) Nomination 
(B) Assignment 
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

63) ............ can be changed by the policyholder by making another endowment on the policy.

(A) Nomination 
(B) Claim 
(C) Premium 
(D) Assignment

64) In Nomination, the policyholder retains full control and deal with the policy without the consent of ...............

(A) Assignor 
(B) Assignee 
(C) Nominee 
(D) Insurer

65) Nomination can be done...........

(A) before issue of the policy by mention in the proposal form or by a letter giving details of
(B) after issue of the policy, by an endorsement on the policy
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

SURRENDERS AND LOANS

66) When the policyholder voluntarily terminate the contract, it is called ...........

(A) Surrender 
(B) Termination 
(C) Assignment 
(D) Nomination

67) The amount payable by the insurer to the policyholder on surrender is called.......

(A) Surrender value 
(B) Cash value
(C) Both A & B 
(D) None of these

68) The actual surrender value will be higher than ...........

(A) Face value
(B) Normal value 
(C) Cash value 
(D) Guaranteed surrender value

69) How many percentage of loan are given on the life insurance policy ?

(A) 80% of the surrendeer value 
(B) 90% of the surrendeer value
(C) 100% of the surrendeer value 
(D) Both A & B

UNIT - LINKED INSURANCE PRODUCTS

70) Give the full form of ULIP.

(A) Unit Linked Insurance Policies
(B) Union Linked Insurance Policy
(C) United Linked Insurance Policy 
(D) All of these

71) .......... provides a combination of the life insurance protection and investment.

(A) Life Insurance Policy 
(B) Endowment policy
(C) Unit Linked Insurance Policy 
(D) Term Life Policy

72) In ............ the policyholder can pay additional premium for investment at any time.

(A) ULIP 
(B) Life Insurance
(C) General Insurance 
(D) Endowment Insurance

73) In ......... the amount of the premium used for insurance coverage, other charges and purchase of units are unbundled and transparent.

(A) ULIP 
(B) Traditional Plans 
(C) Life Insurance 
(D) General Insurance

LIFE INSURANCE RIDERS

74) .......... are additional benefits that can be added to a basic life insurance policy to provide additional coverage.

(A) Joint Insurance 
(B) Endowment Insurance 
(C) Additional Insurance 
(D) Riders

75) Which type of rider covers the risk of death or permanent disability as a result of an accident?

(A) Accidental death/ permanent disability benefit rider 
(B) Critical illness rider
(C) Term Rider 
(D) Guaranteed Insurability Rider

76) Which Rider is helpful to protect the insured in the event of diagnosis of a critical illness ?

(A) Major Surgical Assistance Benefit 
(B) Guaranteed Insurability Rider
(C) Critical illness Rider 
(D) Term Rider

77) Which type of rider allows the insured to increase the insurance cover as the terms & conditions of the policy without future medical examination ?

(A) Accidental death rider 
(B) Term rider
(C) Critical illness rider 
(D) Guaranteed Insurability rider

78) Which type of rider provides payment of additional benefit on death over and above the basic policy cover ?

(A) Term rider 
(B) Waiver of premium rider
(C) Guaranteed Insurability rider 
(D) Critical illness rider

79) Which type of rider provides waiver of future premiums ?

(A) Term rider 
(B) Waiver of premium rider
(C) Guaranteed Insurability rider 
(D) Critical illness rider

80) Which type of rider provides insurance coverage for the spouse ?

(A) Term rider 
(B) Critical illness rider
(C) Guaranteed Insurability rider 
(D) Spouse Insurance rider

81) Which type of rider provides financial support in the event of medical emergencies that require surgery ?

(A) Major Surgical Assistance benefit 
(B) Term rider
(C) Guaranteed Insurability rider 
(D) Spouse Insurance rider

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Sunday, June 13, 2021

MARKETING RESEARCH - MCQS

June 13, 2021 0
MARKETING RESEARCH - MCQS
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 6

MARKETING RESEARCH

MARKETING RESEARCH
(MR)
MCQS - UNIT 3 & 4

UNIT - 3
SAMPLING

1. A ……………………is an aggregate of the elements, possessing certain characteristics, which the researcher wants to study.

A. Population
B. Census
C. Sample
D. Data

2. ……………….. Is a complete enumeration [list] of the elements of the population?

A. Population
B. Data
C. Sample
D. Census.

3. When information is collected from each member of population, it is known as ……………?

A. Sample Survey
B. Case Study
C. Census Survey.
D. Focus Group

4. A ………….. Is a sub –group of the elements of a population, selected for participation in the study?

A. Data
B. Sample
C. Population
D. Census

5. When survey of all the elements of total population is done it is known as?

A. Sample
B. Census Survey
C. Data Collection
D. Computer Survey

6. When survey of only few selected elements [selected persons] of population is done is known as?

A. Sample Survey
B. Census Survey
C. Interview Survey
D. None of The Above

7. Census survey is……..

A. More Costly
B. More Time
C. Less Costly
D. Both A and B

8. When size of population is small or limited which survey is more suitable?

A. Sample Survey
B. Census Survey
C. Computer Survey
D. Both A and C

9. In case of industrial products, buyers are limited so which survey is more suitable?

A. Sample Survey
B. Buyer Survey
C. Census Survey
D. Both A and B

10. When it is not necessary to keep the study secret of survey so which method is more suitable?

A. Census Survey
B. Sample Survey
C. Only B
D. None

11. Which survey method is more suitable for large population?

A. Sample Survey
B. Census Survey
C. Only B
D. Both B and C

12. ………….. Is suitable when measurement process results in to destruction or damage to the elements.

A. Census Survey
B. Computer Survey
C. Sample Survey
D. Only B

13. In sample survey nature of measurement is ………

A. Non-Constructive
B. Destructive
C. Mix
D. Complex

14. In census survey nature of measurement is………

A. Non-Destructive
B. Destructive
C. Complex
D. Ambiguous

15. There is attention to individual cases in census survey. True or false?

A. True
B. Partly False
C. False
D. Can’t Say

16. ……….. Is defined as the process of learning about the population, on the basis of sample selected from it.

A. Population
B. Sampling
C. Sample Size
D. Data

17. Which are the steps of sampling design process?

A. Define the Target Population
B. Determine the Sampling Frame
C. Select a Sampling Technique(S)
D. All of The Above

18. Which is the last step of sampling design process?


A. Define the Target Population
B. Execute the Sampling Process
C. Determine the Sampling Frame
D. Select a Sampling Technique(S)

19. ……….. Means the objects, [persons], about which, the researcher wants to collect information.

A. Extent
B. Elements
C. Data
D. Target

20 what do you mean by extent in sampling design process?

A. Time Limit
B. Target Consumer
C. Geographical Boundaries.
D. Data Of Population

21. ……….. Means the sources, which consist of all the elements of population.

A. Sample Size
B. Sampling Frame
C. Data
D. None

22. Telephone directory or directory of trade association, register of t.y.b.com students, or any other list covering all the elements of population is known as?

A. Sample Size
B. Sampling Frame
C. Extent
D. Target

23. When there is a discrepancy between the target population and the sampling frame, the researcher should eliminate unsuitable elements by screening the respondents, and he should also adjust the data collected. True or false?

A. False
B. True
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

24. How many approaches are there for sampling?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9

25. In which approach the elements are selected in sequence?

A. Sampling with Replacement
B. Sampling Without Replacement
C. Bayesian Approach
D. None

26. In which approach element is selected and data are collected and then element is placed back in the sampling frame?

A. Sampling without Replacement
B. Bayesian Approach
C. Only A
D. Sampling With Replacement

27. In which approach once an element is selected it is removed from the sampling frame.

A. Bayesian Approach
B. Sampling With Replacement
C. Both A and B
D. Sampling Without Replacement

28. While deciding the size of sample, the researcher should consider the following factors:

A. The Importance of Decision
B. The Nature of the Research
C. The Number of Variables.
D. All of The Above


SAMPLING TECHNIQUES

29. In which techniques, sample elements are selected by the personal judgment of the researcher?

A. Probability Sampling Techniques
B. Non – Probability Sampling Techniques
C. Only A
D. Both A and B

30. Which are the various non-probability sampling techniques?

A. Convenience Sampling
B. Judgmental Sampling
C. Snowball Sampling and Quota Sampling
D. all of the above

31. Use of students, church groups & members of social organization, mall – intercept interview, people waiting at railway station or petrol pump, “people on street” interviews, are example of which type of sampling technique ?

A. Judgmental Sampling
B. Convenience Sampling
C. Snowball Sampling
D. Quota Sampling

33. Under ……… technique the researcher selects those sample elements, which are relatively convenient [or easy] to obtain.

A. Judgmental Sampling
B. Snowball Sampling
C. Convenience Sampling
D. Quota Sampling

34. …………. Technique is suitable for exploratory research, but not for descriptive or casual research.

A. Quota Sampling
B. Judgmental Sampling
C. Snowball Sampling
D. Convenience Sampling

35. …….. Technique can be used for focus group interview, pretesting, questionnaires or pilot studies

A. Snowball Sampling
B. Judgmental Sampling
C. Convenience Sampling
D. Quota Sampling

36. Test markets selected to decide potentials of a new product, purchase engineers selected in industrial marketing research, expert witnesses used in court, departmental stores selected to test a new display system, are the examples of which sampling technique?

A. Snowball Sampling
B. Judgmental Sampling
C. Quota Sampling
D. Referrals

37. In ………. Technique an initial group of respondents is selected at random after this, their interview is conducted and they are asked to give references of other people, who belongs to the target population.

A. Convenience Sampling
B. Snowball Sampling
C. Quota Sampling
D. Judgmental Sampling:

38. Under snowball sampling the group of respondents giving references are known as?


A. Referrals
B. Volunteers
C. Only B
D. None

39. Which technique is known as two stage restricted judgmental sampling?

A. Snowball Sampling
B. Judgmental Sampling
C. Convenience Sampling
D. Quota Sampling

40. Under ………. Technique the researcher prepares a list of control characteristics of population like age, sex, income level, etc. Then, he divides the total population into different groups, such as male and female population.

A. Quota Sampling
B. Snowball Sampling
C. Judgmental Sampling
D. Convenience Sampling

41. In ……….sampling, sampling units are selected by chance.

A. Probability Sampling Techniques
B. Non - Probability Sampling Techniques
C. Only B
D. None

42. In …….. Technique, each element of population has equal chance [probability] of selection.

A. Sample Random
B. Simple Random Sampling
C. Cluster
D. Systematic

43. Which method is similar to lottery system?

A. Systematic
B. Simple Random Sampling
C. Cluster
D. None of The Above

44. Under which technique the researcher first decide the sampling frame& each element is given a unique identification number, then the random numbers are selected by computer routine or by table.

A. Sample Random
B. Cluster
C. Systematic
D. Simple Random Sampling

45. Under which technique first sample is selected by simple random sampling [i.e. At random] as a starting point and then the remaining samples are selected on the basis of sampling fraction or sampling interval?

A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster
D. None of The Above

46. What is the formula of sampling interval?

A. Sampling Interval = N/n
B. Sampling Interval = n/N
C. Sampling Interval = Z/N
D. Sampling Interval = N/N

47. When the total population is divided into different homogeneous groups [or sub groups],
which are known as?


A. Strata.
B. Data
C. Sample
D. Stratification

48. The procedure of dividing the total population into homogeneous groups is known as?

A. Data
B. Strata.
C. Stratification.
D. Sample

49. The samples selected from the strata are known as ……… samples and the process of selecting sample is known as ……….. Sampling.

A. Stratified, Stratified Random
B. Sample, Strata filed
C. Simple, Strata
D. None of The Above

50 what are the main objective of stratified sampling technique?

A. Decrease Precision without Increasing Cost.
B. To Collect Timely Data
C. Increase Precision without Increasing Cost.
D. Increase Collection Cost

51. As the population is divided into homogeneous strata, it provides accurate information about all the groups of population. True or false?

A. False
B. True
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

52 under ……. Sampling, the target population is first divided into various subpopulation [groups] or clusters.


A. One Stage Sampling
B. Individual Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Strata Sampling

53. If all the elements are selected from the selected cluster, then this procedure is known as?

A. Two Stage Sampling
B. One Stage Cluster Sampling.
C. Three Stage Cluster Sampling
D. All of The Above

54. If only few elements are selected as sample from each selected cluster, this procedure is known as?

A. One Stage Cluster Sampling
B. Both A and C
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Two – Stage Cluster Sampling.

55. What is the common example of cluster sampling?

A. Zone Sampling
B. District Sampling
C. Area Sampling
D. All of The Above

56. When we require highly accurate estimates of population characteristics, it becomes necessary to eliminate personal bias. So, in this case, which sampling is desirable?

A. Probability Sampling
B. Non-Probability Sampling
C. Only B
D. All of The Above

57. In case of heterogeneous population, which sampling is desirable?

A. Non-Probability Sampling
B. Probability Sampling
C. Both A and B
D. None

58. In case of non – probability sampling, there is possibility of personal bias or personal prejudice in sample selection. So, it is unfavorable [not preferable] from the statistical view point. True or false?

A. True
B. False
C. Partly False
D. Can’t Say

59. ……….. Sampling is less time consuming and less costly?

A. Probability Sampling
B. Sample
C. Non – Probability
D. Cluster

60. While determining the sample size, the researcher should consider following qualitative factors


A. The Importance of the Decision and the Nature of Research
B. Number of Variables and the Nature of the Analysis
C. Sample Size Used In Similar Studies
D. All of The Above


UNIT 4 
 DATA CLEANING

1. …….. Means the review of the questionnaires, with the objectives of increasing accuracy and precision.

A. Editing
B. Coding
C. Transcribing
D. All

2. Editing includes screening of questionnaires to identify ……

A. Illegible,
B. Incomplete,
C. Inconsistent and Ambiguous Responses
D. All of The Above

3. A respondent reports his monthly income of rs. 8,000 and yet he indicates frequent shopping at prestigious mall this is an example of …….. Response.

A. Illogical
B. Incomplete
C. Inconsistent
D. Appropriate

4. Responses may be illegible if they are ………poorly.

A. Answered
B. Collected
C. Heard
D. Recorded

5. If the questionnaire contains structured questions, codes are assigned after field work. True or false?

A. False
B. True
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

6. Which of the following are the guidelines for coding unstructured questions and questionnaires in general?

A. Category Codes Should Be Mutually Exclusive And Collectively Exhaustive.
B. Category Codes Should Be Assigned For Critical Issues, Even If Nobody Has Mentioned A Particular Response.
C. Data Should Be Coded To Retain Maximum Possible Information
D. All of The Above

7. ……… means each response must fit into only one category code.

A. Mutually Exhaustive
B. Collectively Exhaustive
C. Mutually Exclusive
D. Both A and B

8. Collectively exhaustive means every response must fit into any one of the assigned category codes. True or false?

A. False
B. True
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

9. ……are sets of records.

A. Data Cleaning
B. Data Files
C. Data Prints
D. Data Scripts

10 ………………. is the process of transferring the coded data from the questionnaires [or data coding sheets] directly into computers.

A. Coding
B. Editing
C. Transcribing
D. Reporting

11. Data can be transferred to computers by using


A. Keypunching,
B. Optical Recognition,
C. Digital Technologies, Bar Codes or Other Technologies
D. All of The Above

12. What is the full form of “CATI”?

A. Computer Arranged Telephone Interviewing
B. Computer Assisted Telephone Interviewing
C. Computer Arranged Transparent Interviewing
D. None of The Above

13. What is the full form of “CAPI”?

A. Computer Assisted People Interviewing
B. Computer Arranged People Interviewing
C. Computer Arranged Personal Interviewing
D. Computer Assisted Personal Interviewing

14. ………converts the printed text into computer files.

A. Optical Recognition Programme
B. Optical Scanning
C. Bar Codes
D. All of The Above

15. In …….. Process, answers recorded on computer readable forms [like OMR sheet] are scanned to form a data record.


A. Optical Recognition Programme
B. Optical Scanning
C. Bar Codes
D. All of The Above

16. Which method involves direct machine reading of the codes and simultaneous transcription?

A. Bar Codes
B. Optical Recognition Programme
C. Optical Scanning
D. None

17. On which thing the selection of the method of data transcription depends?

A. Type of Calling Method
B. Type of Communication Method
C. Type of Interviewing Method
D. None

18………………. Includes consistency checks and treatment of missing responses. This work is done by computer.

A. Data Cleaning
B. Consistency Checks
C. Data Transcribing
D. Data Editing

19 … means to identify those data which are out of range or logically inconsistent or which have extreme values.

A. Data Cleaning
B. Data Transcribing
C. Consistency Checks
D. None

20 .out of range data are inadmissible and must be corrected. Computer packages are used to identify out of range value for each variable. True or false?

A. False
B. True
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

21. A respondent reports unfamiliar with a product as well as frequent use of the same product. This is an example of?

A. Missing Responses
B. Wrong Arrangements of Words
C. Logically Inconsistency
D. All of The Above

22. Those values of a variable, which are unknown either because the respondents have not provided correct answers or their answers are not properly recorded are known as? 

A. Logically Inconsistency
B. Case Wise Deletion
C. Only B
D. Missing Responses

23. If the proportion of missing responses is more than…….., the treatment of missing responses creates problem.

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 5%
D. 3%

24. In ……. , the cases or respondents with any missing response are discarded [rejected] from the analysis.

A. Pairwise Deletion
B. Case Wise Deletion
C. One By One Deletion
D. None

25. In ……….. Case instead of discarding all the cases with missing responses, the researcher uses the cases or respondents with complete responses for the variable involved in each calculation.

A. Case Wise Deletion
B. One By One Deletion
C. Pairwise Deletion
D. Cross Tabulation

26. ……………….. Statistical technique, which describes two or more variables simultaneously.

A. Pairwise Deletion
B. Cross Tabulation
C. Case Wise Deletion
D. Cross Editing

27. Cross tabulation is the merging of frequency distribution of two or more variables in single table. True or false?

A. False
B. Partly False
C. Can’t Say
D. True

28. Which thing is useful to understand that how one variable [like smoking habit] is related to another variable?

A. Cross Checking
B. Cross Editing
C. Cross Tabulation
D. Cross Calculation

29. What are the merits of cross tabulation?

A.  Analysis And Results Of Cross Tabulation Are Easy To Interpret And To Understand For Managers.
B. The Results Of Cross Tabulation Are Useful For Deciding Managerial Action.
C. Cross Tabulation Is Simple [Easy] To Conduct.
D. All of the Above.

30. Data file is useful to prepare code book. True or false?

A. False
B. True
C. Partly True
D. Partly False

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