Study For Buddies: TY Semester 5 MCQS
Showing posts with label TY Semester 5 MCQS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label TY Semester 5 MCQS. Show all posts

Friday, December 16, 2022

Audit and assurance Mcqs

December 16, 2022 0
Audit and assurance Mcqs
T.Y  B.COM 
SEMESTER - 5  

AUDIT AND ASSURANCE
MCQs - 30 Nov 2021 

1. _________ deals with overall objectives of the Independent Auditor and conduct of an Audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing.

A. SA 240 
B. SA 200  
C. SA 230 
D. SA 500  

2. Which of the following is the disadvantage of audit programme? 

A. Audit programme helps in distribution of work amongst audit assistants as per their capabilities. 
B. Audit programme is mechanical in nature hence audit will be completed within time available. 
C. Audit program acts as a evidence against change of negligence. 
D. Audit programme helps in covering all the areas where audit is required. 

3. The concept of 'True and Fair view' is fundamental concept of auditing and Auditor is required to examine and ensure that 
I. Assets are neither undervalued nor overvalued 
II. No material liabilities are omitted 
III. The charge, if any, on assets are disclosed 
IV. Accounting policies have been followed consistently

A. I, II, III 
B. I, II, III, IV  
C. I, III, IV
D.  II, III, IV

4. Permanent working paper file contains __________ while maintaining the audit documentation as per standard on auditing.

A. copies of management letters 
B. audit programme 
C. analysis of transaction and balances under audit 
D. Analysis of significant ratios and trends  
 
5._________________audit is an examination of financial records to assess the correctness of calculation of taxable profit, to ensure compliance with provisions of the Income tax Act,1961 and also to ensure fulfilment of conditions for claiming deduction under the said Act. 

A. Cost  
B. Tax 
C. Social 
D. Management 

6. The Income tax Act, 1961 provides, for compulsory tax audit for an assessee carrying on profession where gross receipts exceeds _______ in the previous year.  

A. Rs. 5 crores 
B. Rs. 1 crores 
C. Rs. 1 crores 
D. Rs. 50 Lakhs 

7. Generally, while performance financial audit, for an auditor _________ audit evidences are more reliable compared to _________ audit evidences. 

A. internal, external 
B. external, internal 
C. Oral, documentary 
D. sufficient, appropriate 

8. Which of the following is not the method of obtaining the audit evidence?

A. Inquiry 
B. Accounting Statistics 
C. Recalculation 
D. Reperformance 

9. __________ is the method of obtaining the audit evidence by looking the process or procedure        to be carried out for recording the transactions or events which generally follows in the __________ type of audit evidence. 

A. Inspection, documentary 
B. Inquiry, documentary 
C. Observation, visual sayd
D. Confirmation, documentary 

10. The auditor shall _________ the audit procedures that are appropriate in the circumstances for the purpose of obtaining sufficient and appropriate audit evidence.

A. identify 
B. inquire into sayad
C. design and perform 
D. design 

11. From the following, which of the statement is not true?

A. Manipulation of accounts excludes the recording of transactions/events with the purpose of window dressing.
B. Teaming and leading method is one kind of fraud for misappropriation of cash.
C. Inflating payment means showing excess payment than actual.
D. Secrete reserve is created with the intension of reducing the tax liabilities. 

12. Which of the following is not included in the current working paper file in case of an auditor appointed for the private limited company? 

A. Memorandum and Articles of Association 
B. Bank reconciliation statement 
C. Annual appointment of auditor 
D. Methods of review of internal control

13. Which of the following is the disadvantage of audit programme? 

A. Audit programme helps in distribution of work amongst audit assistants as per their capabilities. 
B. Audit programme is mechanical in nature hence audit will be completed within time available. 
C. Audit program acts as a evidence against change of negligence. 
D. Audit programme helps in covering all the areas where audit is required. 

14. Which of the following standard on auditing (SA) belongs to Audit Documentation?

A. SA 500
B. SA 230
C. SA 300
D. SA 200

15. Which of the following statements is/are true or false for audit programme? 
I. One Audit programme is not suitable for all entities. 
II. Generally audit programme should contain minimum procedures. 
III. An audit programme consists of a series of verification procedures to be applied 
IV. There is no need to review the audit programme periodically.

A. True, False, True, False 
B. True, True, True, False 
C. False, False, True, False 
D. True, True, True, True

16. Working papers can support the __________ in case the _________ files a suit for negligence in the performance of the audit.

A. client, auditor
B. management, independent auditor
C. company, auditor
D. auditor, client

17. ________ is concerned with designing optimised audit approaches that seek to achieve the necessary audit assurance at the lowest cost within the constraints of the information available.

A. Audit programme
B. Compliance procedures
C. Substantives procedure
D. Audit strategy

18. Which of the following aspect is not covered in audit of financial statements:

A. Examination of Accounting System & Internal Control
B. Vouching of the transactions
C. Verification of Assets & Liabilities
D. Design, implementation and maintenance of Internal Control System.

19. The risk of the _________ for not detecting a material misstatement resulting from management fraud is greater than for employee fraud, because management is frequently in a position to manipulate accounting records, present fraudulent financial information.

A. management 
B. Chief Finance Officer 
C. those charged with governance 
D. auditor 

20. Standards on Assurance Engagements are to be applied in 

A. the audit of historical financial information. 
B. the review of historical financial information. 
C. assurance engagements, engagements dealing with subject matter other than historical financial information. 
D. engagements involving application of agreed upon procedures to information and other related services such as compilation engagements.

For More Detail Contact Us And Follow On Study For Buddies

Thank You

Friday, January 7, 2022

Retail Banking Mcqs

January 07, 2022 0
Retail Banking Mcqs
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 5

RETAIL BANKING
MCQs - 2-12-2021 

1. Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of Retail Banking? 

A. High cross selling potentials 
B. High Customer loyalty 
C. Less volatility in business 
D. High Default rates 

2. Bancassurance product is an example of: 

A. Wealth Product for a Bank 
B. Liability Product for a Bank 
C. Other Products of a Bank 
D. External Products for a Bank 

3. Which of the following is a product model in retail banking? 

A. Asset Products 
B. External Products 
C. Internal Products 
D. Foreign Exchange Products 

4. Which one of the following allows credit for a short period to be adjusted in a very short time? 

A. Overdraft 
B. Personal Loan 
C. Two-wheeler loan 
D. Term loan 

5. Sale of Gold Coins, bill payment services, air ticket bookings, etc. fall under which classification of Retail products? 

A. Retail Assets 
B. Retail Liabilities 
C. Other Products/Services 
D. Both Retail Assets & Retail Liabilities 

6. Which one of the following are considered unsecured in nature and backed by personal guarantees only? 

A. Term loans 
B. Personal loans  
C. Overdraft   
D. Two-wheeler loans  

7. Free credit period is allowed for: 

A. Credit card     
B. Debit card 
C. External Travel card 
D. Foreign exchange card 

8. In which type of banking, the impact of Non Performing Assets (NPAs) will have more pronounced effect on business? 

A. Retail Banking 
B. Corporate Banking 
C. Group Banking 
D. Chain Banking 

9. Which one of the following includes small and medium size businesses? 

A. Wholesale banking 
B. Retail Banking 
C. Merchant banking 
D. Investment banking 

10. There will be ______ volatility in demand and credit cycle in  ________.

A. more, retail banking 
B. medium, wholesale banking 
C. less, wholesale banking 
D. less, retail banking 

11. Housing Loans, Consumer Durable Loans, Car Loans, Overdrafts, etc. are examples of: 

A. Retail Assets Products 
B. Retail Liability Products 
C. Other Retail Products/Services 
D. Both Other Products/Services & Retail Liability Products 

12. Term Deposits are: 

A. Asset Products for a Bank 
B. Liability Products for a Bank 
C. Financial Problems for a Bank 
D. Wealth for a Bank  

13. In case of Wholesale Banking, the internal competition is: 

A. Intense 
B. Moderate 
C. Low 
D. Negligible 

14. Name the two banks who were the pioneers in introducing hybrid retail products in India: 

A. Citibank and Standard Chartered Bank 
B. Standard Chartered Bank and Grindlays Bank 
C. HSBC and Barclays Bank 
D. State Bank of India and HSBC 

15. Which of the following provides an individual access to her funds as deposited in her savings bank account? 

A. Debit card 
B. Letter of credit  
C. Pass book update machine 
D. International credit cards 

16. Out of the following, which loan is not a focus area by banks as the ticket size is small and they are taken care of by NBFC mostly? 

A. Personal loans 
B. Overdraft 
C. Two-wheeler loans 
D. Term loans 

17. Which one of the following forms the backbone of retail banking income? 

A. Liability Products 
B. Asset Products 
C. Third Party Products 
D. Both Liability Products and Asset Products 

18. In which form of Banking, there are large volumes with low amount of transactions? 

A. Retail Banking 
B. Wholesale Banking 
C. Universal Banking 
D. Unit Banking 

19. In Retail Banking, Competition from market is: 

A. Neutral 
B. High 
C. Low 
D. Near to zero  

20. Which one of the following is NOT part of Retail Banking? 

A. Internet Banking 
B. Mobile Banking 
C. Providing term loans for projects 
D. Credit Card facility

For More Detail Contact Us And Follow On Study For Buddies

Thank You

Advanced accounting

January 07, 2022 0
Advanced accounting
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER : 5

ADVANCED ACCOUNTING
MCQs : 1-12-2021

1. Which of the following is correct? 
 
A. A new company formed to take over business of two or more companies is known as Absorption 
B. Reconstruction of a company without forming a new company is Internal Reconstruction 
C. One existing company taking over two or more existing company is Amalgamation 
D. When the transferee company takes over all assets of Transferor Company at an agreed value, the suggested accounting method is Pooling of Interest Method 
 
2. The book value of Machinery of Subsidiary Company as on 1.4.2020 was Rs. 4,50,000 while its closing value as on 31.3.2021 was Rs. 4,05,000. The holding company while acquiring shares of subsidiary company as on 31.7.2020 revalued this machinery at Rs. 4,50,000. The revaluation gain is ________? 
 
A. Rs. 22,500 
B. Rs. 15,000 
C. Rs. 45,000 
D. Rs. 40,500  
 
3. As on 31st March 2020 the contingent liabilities for Bills discounted of Holding Co. and its Subsidiary Co. amounted to Rs. 4,000 and Rs. 6,000 respectively. Out of the total bills discounted by Holding Co., the bills worth Rs. 2,000 are accepted by Subsidiary Company. What amount of bills will be disclosed as footnote while preparing Consolidated Financial Statement? 
 
A. Rs. 2,000 
B. Rs. 8,000 
C. Rs. 10,000 
D. Rs. 12,000 
 
4. A Ltd acquired the business of B Ltd and agreed to issue 3,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs.2 per share to equity shareholders of B Ltd. It also issued 2,00,000 10% preference shares of Rs. 10 each, Rs. 8 paid up to preference shareholders of B Ltd and paid Cash of Rs. 30,000 to liquidator of transferor company to meet liquidation expenses. Calculate the amount of purchase consideration. 
 
A. Rs. 52,30,000 
B. Rs. 36,00,000 
C. Rs. 16,00,000 
D. Rs. 52,00,000 
 
5. KC Ltd holds 65% equity shares in NK Ltd. Up to the date of acquisition, the operating profit earned by NK Ltd. was Rs. 3,00,000 while its total operating profit in the year of acquisition amounted to Rs. 6,50,000. The balance of profit & loss a/c in the Consolidated Balance sheet will increase by __________. 
 
A. Rs. 2,27,500 
B. Rs. 1,95,000 
C. Rs. 4,22,500 
D. Rs. 4,30,000 
 
6. The book value of Machinery of Subsidiary Company as on 1.4.2020 was Rs. 4,50,000 while its closing value as on 31.3.2021 was Rs. 4,05,000. The holding company while acquiring shares of subsidiary company as on 31.7.2020 revalued this machinery at Rs. 4,50,000. The carrying value of Machinery in the consolidated balance sheet will be _________?
 
A. Rs. 4,50,000 
B. Rs. 4,95,000 
C. Rs. 4,20,000 
D. Rs. 4,35,000 
 
7. X Itd purchased 80% of equity shares of Rs. 10 each of Y ltd on 30.09.2019 for Rs. 2,40,000. On 1st April 2019, the equity share capital of Y ltd was Rs. 2,50,000, Profit and loss account Dr. balance Rs. 40,000 and Reserves showed a balance of Rs. 20,000. During the year 2019-20. Y ltd has earned a profit of Rs. 40,000. Calculate the Total capital Profits and Revenue Profits 
 
A. Rs. 80,000 and Rs. 20,000 
B. Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 4,000 
C. Rs. Nil and Rs. 20,000 
D. Rs. 1,00,000 and Nil 
 
8. The balance sheet of ABC Itd had net assets of Rs. 11,00,000 on 31.03.2020. XYZ Itd agreed to take over the business on the same day and valued net assets at 110% and agreed to issue necessary number of equity shares of its own of Rs. 10 each at a premium of Rs.1 as purchase consideration. The number of equity shares issued and the amount of premium will be ___________. 
 
A. 1,10,000 equity shares and premium of Rs. 1,10,000 
B. 1,00,000 equity shares and premium of Rs. 1,00,000
C. 1,00,000 equity shares and premium of Rs.10,000 
D. 1,21,000 equity shares and premium of Rs. 1,21,000 
 
9. For an upstream sales, which of the following is correct? ________. 
 
A. Holding Company sells goods to Subsidiary Company 
B. Subsidiary Company sells goods to Holding Company 
C. Holding company sells goods to a non-affiliated company 
D. Subsidiary company sells good to a non-affiliated company 
 
10. The Holding ratio is 8:7. The annual sales of Holding company include Rs. 1,00,000 sold to Subsidiary company of which 75% remained unsold as on the last date of accounting year. The holding company sales goods at 20% on sales. How much amount of unrealized profit to be adjusted in the Consolidated Balance sheet? 
 
A. Rs. 8,000 
B. Rs. 7,000 
C. Rs. 20,000 
D. Rs. 15,000 
 
11. The guidelines for Measurement, Recognition and disclosures of amalgamation transactions is given by __________? 
 
A. AS-15 
B. AS-14 
C. AS-21 
D. AS-09 
 
12. On absorption in nature of purchase, it was agreed that the realization expenses to the extent of Rs. 10,000 will be paid by Transferee Company. If the actual realization expense amounts to Rs. 12,000 Which of the following entry will be passed in books of Transferee Company? 
 
A. Goodwill A/c Dr. 10,000 To Cash A/c 10,000 
B. P & L A/c Dr. 10,000 To Cash A/c 10,000 
C. Goodwill A/c Dr. 12,000 To Cash A/c 12,000 
D. P & L A/c Dr. 12,000 To Cash A/c 12,000 
 
13. While preparing the consolidated balance sheet of Holding and its subsidiary company, the Investment in the shares of Subsidiary is eliminated as it is ___________?  
 
A. Necessary to avoid such irrelevant disclosures 
B. Not a mandatory disclosure 
C. Replaced by share in the assets and liability of subsidiary Company 
D. Exempted to be shown by the act 
 
14. The payment due to Subsidiary Co. of Rs. 25,000 was paid by holding company by issuing crossed cheque as on 30th March 2020. The same was received by Subsidiary company on 3rd April 2020. Which of the following is the correct treatment while preparing the consolidated Balance sheet of Holding and its subsidiary as of 31st March 2020? 
 
A. Deduct Rs. 25,000 from total Debtors and also from total Creditors 
B. Deduct from the total debtors of Subsidiary company and add Rs. 25,000 to Cash & bank balance as Cheque in Transit. True
C. No accounting treatment is to be given 
D. Deduct the bank balances by Rs. 25,000 and show it as Bank overdraft on the liability side. 
 
15. The downward revaluation of the assets of subsidiary company on acquisition of equity shares by controlling company leads to __________? 
 
A. Capital loss and increase in revenue profits 
B. Revenue loss and increase in capital profits 
C. Increase in the value of assets 
D. Increase in the depreciation of assets in the post acquisition period 
 
16. The holding ratio is 4:1. The Share capital of the subsidiary company consists of 1,20,000 equity shares of Rs. 10 each fully paid and its Reserves & Surplus showed a balance of Rs. 7,00,000. The claim of the Minority Shareholders is __________. 
 
A. Rs. 1,40,000 
B. Rs. 3,80,000 
C. Rs. 2,40,000 
D. Rs. 1,20,000 
 
17. Under the Internal Reconstruction scheme, an unrecorded liability of Rs. 25,000 is settled by the company at Rs. 15,000. The unpaid amounts of Rs. 10,000 will __________. 
 
A. be credited to Capital Reduction Account 
B. be shown as liability in the New Balance sheet after Internal Reconstruction 
C. not be recorded at all. 
D. be debited to Capital Reduction Account  
 
18. Ayush Itd. Absorbed business of Ayushi Itd and agreed to issue such an amount of fully paid 8% debentures of its own at 90% as is sufficient to discharge the 7% Rs. 2,00,000 Preference shares of Ayushi Itd at a discount of 10%. The value of debentures issued by Ayush Itd is __________.? 
 
A. 2,00,000 
B. 2,20,000  
C. 1,80,000 
D. 1,90,000  
 
19. Excel Ltd has paid up share capital of Rs. 3,50,000 divided into equity shares of Rs. 10 each, called & paid up Rs.8 each. Under the Internal reconstruction, the company decides to cancel the liability of members to the extent of Rs.1 per share. What will be the number of equity shares and its paid up value in the balance sheet after Implementation of this scheme?  
 
A. 35,000 equity shares and Rs. 3,50,000  
B. 35,000 equity shares and Rs. 2,80,000  
C. 35,000 equity shares and Rs. 3,15,000  
D. 43,750 equity shares and Rs. 3,50,000 
 
20. KC Ltd is a holding company of NK Ltd. NK Itd is holding company of JK ltd while JK ltd is a holding company MK Itd. Which of the following statement is true for the given situation? 
 
A. NK Ltd is sub-subsidiary of KC Itd 
B. JK Ltd is subsidiary of KC Itd. 
C. MK Ltd is sub-subsidiary company of JK ltd 
D. JK Ltd is holding company of MK Ltd and sub-subsidiary company of KC Ltd.
 
21. Which of the following is the correct entry for maintaining Statutory Reserves of Transferor Company in the books of Transferee company ? 
 
A. Goodwill A/c Dr_______To Amalgamation Adjustment A/c 
B. Statutory Reserves A/c Dr_______To Amalgamation Adjustment A/c 
C. Amalgamation Adjustment A/c Dr________To Statutory Reserves A/c 
D. Amalgamation Adjustment A/c Dr________To Goodwill A/c  
 
22. A new company, R Itd was formed to take over the business of P Ltd. & Q Ltd. on 31/03/2020. The balance sheet of P Ltd. & Q Ltd. showed 10% Debenture of Rs. 30,00,000 & Rs. 15,00,000 respectively. R Ltd. agreed to discharge these debentures by issuing such a number of its 15 %, Debentures of Rs.100 each so as to maintain the same amount of interest. What will be the agreed value of Debentures taken over _______ & _________. 
 
A. Rs. 30,00,000 & Rs. 15,00,000 
B. Rs. 20,00,000 & Rs. 30,00,000 
C. Rs. 20,00,000 & Rs. 10,00,000 
D. Rs. 15,00,000 & Rs. 30,00,000 
 
23. Which the following is incorrect ________.? 
 
A. The two companies amalgamate to enjoy economies of large scale operations 
B. The companies amalgamate to increase the managerial effectiveness 
C. The companies amalgamate to decrease the cut-throat competition and increase the market share. 
D. The two companies amalgamate to increase their number of employees,  
 
24. The upward revaluation of the assets of subsidiary company on acquisition of equity shares by controlling company leads to __________? 
 
A. Capital loss and increase in revenue profits 
B. Capital profit and decrease in revenue profits 
C. Revenue loss and increase in capital profits 
D. Decrease in the depreciation of assets in the post acquisition period 
 
25. Rapid Ltd absorbed the business of Fast Ltd. and agreed to issue One equity shares of Rs. 10 each, 8 paid up at a premium of Rs.4 against two equity share and also to issue One 10% preference shares of Rs. 10 each, 5 paid up at a premium of Rs. 3 against every two preference shares of Fast Ltd. The share capital of Fast Ltd. consists of 3,00,000 equity shares of Rs. 5 each fully paid up and 2,00,000, 8% preference shares of Rs. 10 each fully paid up. The transferee company will credit Rs. __________ to Security premium account.  
 
A. Rs. 5,00,000
B. Rs. 6,00,000
C. Rs. 3,00,000
D. Rs. 9,00,000

For More Detail Contact Us And Follow On Study For Buddies

Thank You

Wednesday, January 5, 2022

Audit & Assurance Mcqs

January 05, 2022 0
Audit & Assurance Mcqs
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 5

AUDIT & ASSURANCE
MCQs

1. Which of the following is not true about auditor's duty? 

A. The Auditor should express option on financial statements 
B. His opinion is no guarantee to future variability of business 
C. He is responsible for detection and prevention of frauds and errors in financial statements 
D. He should examine whether recognized accounting principal have been consistently followed 

2. A sale of Rs.50,000 to a was entered as a sale to B This is example of _________. 

A. Error of Principle 
B. Error of Omission 
C. Error of Commission 
D. Compensating Error 

3. Goods sent on approval have been recorded as credit sales, This is example of _________.

A. Error of Omission 
B. Error of Commission 
C. Error of Duplication 
D. Error of Principle 

4. Which of the following is the most appropriate potential reaction of the auditor to detect a fraud in relation to the existence of inventory? 

A. Visit location on surprise basis to observe test counts 
B. Request inventory count at the date close to year end 
C. Vouch the goods sent on approval basic 
D. Prefer analytical procedures 

5. Auditor of bank is an example of _________. 

A. Statutory audit 
B. Balance sheet audit 
C. Concurrent Audit 
D. None of the above

6. Concurrent audit is a part of _________. 

A. Internal Check system 
B. Continuous Audit 
C. Internal Audit System 
D. None of the above 

7. In India balance sheet audit is synonymous of _________. 

A. Annual Audit 
B. Continuous Audit 
C. Detailed Audit 
D. Statutory Audit 

8. Balance sheet audit is includes verification of _________.

A. Assets 
B. Liabilities  
C. Income and Expenditure  
D. All of the above 

9. Balance sheet audit does not include __________. 

A. Verification of assets and liabilities 
B. Vouching of income and expenses related to assets and liabilities 
C. Examination of adjusting and closing entries  
D. Routine checks 

10. Audit is derived from _________ word, Audile.  

A. Gujarati 
B. Spanish 
C. English 
D. Latin 

11. Audile Means __________. 

A. To hear 
B. To verify 
C. To step 
D. To speak

12. The system of process of audit is __________. 

A. Verification 
B. Vouching 
C. Book-keeping 
D. Auditing 

13. An auditor of company must be __________. 

A. B.com 
B. M.B.A 
C. Chief 
D. C.A 

14. Reporting is a part of _________. 

A. Accountancy  
B. auditing 
C. Book-keeping 
D. Cooking 

15. Omitting cash receipt is __________. 

A. Misappropriation of Goods 
B. Manipulation of books 
C. Error of Principle 
D. Misappropriation of cash 

16. Tearning & Lapping is __________. 

A. Detection of Error 
B. Prevention of Error 
C. Window-Dressing 
D. Secret-Reserve 

17. Over-Valuation of Assets is known as __________.   

A. Secret-Reserve  
B. Detection of Error  
C. Window-Dressing 
D. Prevention of Error

18. Undervaluation of assets is known as _________.  

A. Window-Dressing  
B. Detection of Error  
C. Secret Reserve 
D. Prevention of Error

19. Following is not fraud of Misappropriation of cash. 

A. Fictitious Payment 
B. Tearning & Lapping 
C. Wrong allowances rebate discount  
D. Over Valuation of Liabilities 

20. Following is not fraud of misappropriation of goods. 

A. Showing more wastage, scrape act. Than actual 
B. Not receipt of goods in stock register 
C. Goods withdraw for personal use 
D. Alteration is stock register 

21. Manipulation fraud is difficult to discover because it is usually committed by __________. 

A. House wife 
B. Employee  
C. Directors or manager 
D. finance minister

22. Which of the following is not Qualities of Auditor 

A. Sound Knowledge of accounting & Auditing  
B. Clever, Alert, Cautious 
C. Honest 
D. He must be of suspicious Mentality 

23. Statutory audit not implies to ___________. 

A. Joint stock companies 
B. Temple 
C. Banking companies 
D. Charitable trust registered under the trust act. 

24. Under Statutory audit the relevant act provide for  

A. Appointment & re-appointment of an auditor  
B. Qualification & disqualification's of an auditor  
C.  Removal of an auditor
D. All of above 

25. Where the volume of transaction is very large. 

A. Continuous audit is adopted  
B. Occasional audit is adopted 
C. Annual audit is adopted 
D. Partial audit is adopted 

26. The wrong allocation of amount between capital and revenue expenditure is a/an. 

A. Error of principle 
B. Compensating error 
C. Error of Commission 
D. Trial Balance Error 

27. Audit At the end of the financial year is known as; 

A. Continuous Audit 
B. Interim Audit
C. Operational
D. None of the above

28. Which of the following is not a part of the process of auditing 

A. Preparation of Balance sheet & Profit & Loss A/c 
B. Preparation of Audit Report 
C. Asking for evidence supporting various entries in the accounts 
D. All of the above 

29. State which of the following statement is True. 

A. All errors in the records of an enterprise affect financial statement. 
B. Fraud can be committed through an accounting policy. 
C. Errors are irregularities done intentionally 
D. None of the above

30. Under the Companies Act, 1956 audit of annual financial statement is compulsory for 

A. Private Limited Companies 
B. Public Limited Companies 
C. Companies listed on a stock Exchange 
D. All of the Above 

31. Confirmation technique can be use for  

A. Debtors 
B. Bills Receivable 
C. Bills Payable 
D. All of the above 

32. In an Audit of Payments, which of the following is the most reliable type of evidence? 

A. Receipts issued by person to whom payment is made 
B. Entry relating to payment in bank book 
C. Voucher prepared by the payer company 
D. None of the above 

33. Audit under statute means; 

A. An audit ordered by the Government 
B. An Audit where duties, rights etc. of the Auditor are laid down by law 
C. An audit of corporation in the public sector 
D. All of the above 

34. An Auditor _________ a watch dog and _________ a blood hound 

A. Not, Is 
B. Is, Not 
C. Was, Has 
D. Has, Was 

35. An audit conducted by between the two annual audit know as: 

A. Periodical Audit 
B. Interim Audit  
C. Occasional Audit 
D. Internal Audit 

36. The Expenses which do not pertain to the current year thought have actually been paid during the current year are called 

A. Outstanding expenses 
B. Prepaid expenses 
C. Deferred revenue expenses 
D. None of the above 

37. The Word audit is derived from the __________ the Audiure 

A. Spanish 
B. German 
C. Latin 
D. Indian 

38. The main object of an about is __________. 

A. Expression of opinion  
B. Detection and prevention of fraud and error 
C. Both A and B 
D. Depends on types of audit  

39. State which of the following statement False: 

A. An Auditor is expected to point out to the management, flaws and loopholes in the system of accounting 
B. Unless an auditor is able to discover ail frauds and errors, he has not performed its main function. 
C. Basically, an auditor reports on the truth or otherwise of the financial statements; prevention and detection of frauds and errors are secondary to this 
D. Accounts become incorrect when the principle of double entry is not followed 

40. State which of the following statement is True: 

A. There is no fraud if the cash used personally by the cashier is made up on demandby the management. 
B. A balance sheet is true only on the day it is prepared. 
C. The auditor has to approach everyone with suspicion. 
D. Compliance with the accounting principles generally need not be insisted upon by the auditor. 

41. When two or more errors are committed in such a manner that the ultimate effect of these errors.  

A. Errors of commission 
B. Compensating error  
C. Duplication error  
D. Errors of principle 

42. An auditor who examines the books of account with due audit care escape liability for a subsequent discover of misstatements arising from error or fraud 

A. Can 
B. Cannot 
C. shall 
D. has to 

43. __________ audit is less expensive and suitable particularly for small scale business concerns 

A. Final Audit 
B. Continuous Audit 
C. Management Audit 
D. Operational Audit 

44. __________ audit is an audit conducted on behalf of the management with the objective of assisting the management in effectively discharging its responsibilities, 

A. Continuous Audit
B. Statutory Audit 
C. Management Audit 
D. Final Audit 

45. Audit conducted in between the two annual audit is know as 

A. Periodical Audit 
B. Interim Audit 
C. Partial Audit 
D. Internal Audit 

46. Purchase book records: 

A. Credit Purchases only 
B. Cash Purchases only 
C. Both Cash and credit purchases 
D. None of the Above 

47. Which one of the following is not a contingent liability? 

A. Bills Receivable discounted but not matured  
B. Under writing commission payable 
C. Arrears of cumulative Dividend on preference shares 
D. Uncalled capital on investments 

48. The primary objective of secret reserve is to ________ the tax liability. 

A. Increase  
B. Match 
C. Avoid 
D. Calculate 

49. Which of the following best describes the primary objective of an independent financial audit? 

A. Detection and prevention of frauds.
B. Detection and prevention of errors.
C.  Expression of independent opinion by the auditor about the truth and fairness of financial information examined by him
D. All of the above

50. State which of the following statement is TRUE: 

A. There is little difference between auditing and accenting as both deals with financial statements. 
B. The auditor compares entries in the books of account with the vouchers; and if the two agree his work is done.  
C. The auditor must see to it that there is compliance with the companies act or other enactment, if applicable; otherwise, he has to mention the fact of non -compliance in his report  
D. Safeguarding the company's property is the function of management; hence the auditor is not concerned with verification of assets and liabilities

For More Detail Contact Us And Follow On Study For Buddies

Thank You

Organizational Behaviour Mcqs

January 05, 2022 0
Organizational Behaviour Mcqs
T.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 5

ORGANIZATIONAL BEHAVIOUR
(OB)
MCQs

1. ________ is useful in measuring, understanding, and changing attitudes, communication patterns, the ways in which group activities can satisfy individual needs, and in group-decision making process, 

A. Political Science 
B. Sociology 
C. Social Psychology 
D. Psychology 

2. An emotional attachment to an organization and a belief in its value is... 

A. Psychological empowerment  
B. affective commitment  
C. Organizational commitment  
D. All of the above  

3. An employee may be committed to an employer because she is paid well and it would hurt the family if she quits. This is ________ type of commitment  

A. Continuance  
B. Normative  
C. Affective  
D. Standard  

4. The belief that "violence is wrong" is an evaluative statement. This constitutes __________ Component of attitude.   

A. reflective  
B. cognitive 
C. affective 
D. behavioral  

5. _______covers such aspects as personality, attitudes, perception, learning, motivation and job satisfaction  

A. Intrapersonal behavior  
B. interersonal behavior  
C. Organizational behavior  
D. None of the above  

6. Identify the discipline that has most helped us to understand the differences attitudes and behavior among people indifferent countries.  

A. Political science 
B. Sociology  
C. Psychology 
D. Anthropology 

7. Study of organization behaviour helps the firms to achieve and improve _______ in the organisation.  

A. Skill Of people 
B. Physical strength of people  
C. Organizational effectiveness  
D. Executive skill  

8. Motion is a factor in the ________ that influence Perception  

A. Perceiver  
B. Situation  
C. Target  
D. Stimuli  

9. When we draw general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic _______ is operating. 

A. Stereotyping  
B. Halo effect
C. Selective Perception  
D. Projection  

10. Framework of Organization Behavior includes _________. 

A. Individual Behaviour 
B. Group Behaviour 
C. Organisation 
D. All of the these

11. The tendency to attribute one‘s own characteristics to the people is called ________. 

A. Stereotyping  
B. Halo effect
C. Selective Perception  
D. Projection  

12. The determinants of personality includes _________. 

A. Heredity 
B. Environment  
C. Situation 
D. All of these  

13. It is the process by which individuals organize & interpret incoming stimuli to give meaning to their environment  

A. Personality   
B. Perception  
C. Attitude 
D. Values  

14. Drawing a general impression about individual on the basis of single characteristics is called  ________.

A. Contrast effect  
B. Projection 
C. Stereotyping 
D. Halo effect  

15. Judging the individual on the basis of one‘s perception of the group to which that person belong is called 

A. Contrast effect
B. Projection
C. Stereotyping 
D. Halo effect

16. ________ is derived from social and cultural morals and norms  

A. Values  
B. Perception  
C. Behaviour  
D. None of these  

17. _______ refers to the set of traits and behaviors that characterize an individual.  
A. Perception   
B. Person 
C. Personality  
D. Punishment  

18. The effect of individual on group member is related with _______ discipline.  

A. Psychology 
B. Sociology  
C. Anthropology  
D. Social Psychology  

19. Which of the following discipline is not so closely related with behavioral sciences  

A. Psychology  
B. Sociology
C. Anthropology 
D. Economics  

20. Which discipline is considered as science that seeks to measure, explain and sometime change the behavior of humans 

A. Psychology  
B. Sociology  
C. Anthropology  
D. Social Psychology

21. Social Sciences relates to  

A. physical sciences 
B. Anthropology discipline  
C. political Science  
D. None of these  

22. _______ refers to the sum total of internal and external traits of an individual, which are relatively stable and which make the individual different from others   

A. Learning 
B. Perception 
C. Motivation 
D. Personality  

23. Anthropology studies  

A. Group Behaviour  
B. Effect of Individual behaviour on group members  
C. Individual behaviour  
D. Effect of group members on individual  

24. The intra-personal aspects of organizational behaviour like motivation, personality, perception, attitude, opinion, and learning owe their study to 

A. Anthropology 
B. Sociology  
C. Social Psychology  
D. Psychology 

25. _________ is the result of the processes, internal or external to the individual, that rouse enthusiasm and persistence to pursue a certain course of action. 

A. Motivation  
B. Learning  
C. Perception 
D. Attitude  

26. A perceiver affected by _______ principal tends to see in another person, traits that they themselves process.  

A. Rejection  
B. Extraction  
C. Projection 
D. Contraction 

27. ______ can be defined as the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environments, 

A. Motivation  
B. Learning  
C. Perception 
D. Systematization 

28. ______ is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups and structure have on behaviour within organizations for the purpose of applying such knowledge towards improving an organization‘s effectiveness. 

A. Organization Behaviour  
B. Management  
C. Mathematics   
D. Science  

29. _________ is concerned with initial contact between organisms & their physical environment. 

A. Stimuli 
B. Sensation  
C. Response  
D. Unconditioned Stimuli 

30. Organizational Behaviour is basically ________ approach. 

A. An Uni-Disciplinary  
B. Multi Disciplinary 
C. An Inter-Disciplinary  
D. A Behaviour-Disciplinary 

31. Organization Behavior is  

A. An interdisciplinary approach  
B. A humanistic approach 
C. Total system approach  
D. All of these 

32. Sobha is an honest and straightforward person. She believes her employees are all similarly honest and straightforward, ignoring signs that they may be manipulating her. What perceptual shortcut is Sobha most likely using? 

A. Contrast effect 
B  Halo effect  
C. Stereotyping  
D. Projection 

33. Sathish has a low absenteeism rate. He takes responsibility for his health and has good health habits. He is likely to have a(an): 

A. Internal locus of control 
B. External locus of control 
C. Core locus of control  
D. High emotional stability level 

34. Raju believes that men perform better in oral presentations than women. What shortcut has been used in this case?. 

A. The halo effect 
B. The contrast effect 
C. Projection
D. Stereotyping

35. The subject of organizational culture has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline? 

A. Anthropology  
B. Psychology  
C. social psychology  
D. political science 

36. _______cover/s such aspects as personality; perception, teaming, motivation & attitudes 

A. Intrapersonal behavioral studies  
B. Psychology 
C. Both (a) & (b)  
D. None of the above 

37. Two people see the same thing at the same time, yet interpret it differently Where do the factors that operate to shape to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside  

A. Target  
B. Perceiver 
C. Timing  
D. None of the above 

38. Which of the following is applicable to OB 

A. OB is a discipline  
B. OB is not a pure science 
C. OB is pessimistic  
D. All of the above  

39. Which approach assumes that the ultimate explanation of an individual‘s personality is the molecular structure of genes located in the chromosomes

A. Environmental 
B. Cultural  
C. Situational  
D. None of the above  

40. OB focuses achievement of individual objective at cost of organizational objectives 
  
A. True statement 
B. False statement 
C. None  
D. Both 

41. Jane interprets what she sees exclusively on the basis of her interests, backgrounds, experiences and attitudes. This is -_________.

A  Selective perception 
B. Halo effect 
C  Cognitive dissonance  
D. None of the above 

42. What is so true about Social Psychology? 

A. It studies about human beings ad their activities in different societies 
B. More recently its contribution has been expanded to include motivational forces, job satisfaction, performance appraisal and work design.  
C. One of the major areas it is receiving attention on is change- how to implement change and reduce barriers to its acceptance 
D. All of the above

43. Identify the false statement 

A. Affective is the emotional or feeling segment of the attitude. 
B. Behavioral component of an attitude sets the stage for the more critical part of attitude i.e. the Affective component. 
C. Cognitive component of an attitude reflects the description of a belief in the way things are. 
D. None of the above 

44. In the "S-O-B-C" Model. "O" represents _________. 

A. Overt and covert stimuli  
B. Overt and covert response 
C. Consequences - both overt & covert 
D. Physiological & cognitive mediator 

45. Attitudes are, __________where as Values are ________. 

A. Judgmental, pre-dispositional  
B. Relatively enduring, relatively less enduring 
C. Per- dispositional, judgmental  
D. None of the above 

46. OB is a field of study and not a discipline because 

A. It helps in understanding, predicting and controlling behavior at work place. 
B. It has developed a strong theoretical base. 
C. it integrates the relevant knowledge drawn from other behavioral sciences for some specific purpose. 
D. not all employees can be disciplined due to their unpredictable behavior.  
 
47. ________ takes place when objects are chosen on the basis of one‘s own interests, background, experiences and attitudes, 

A. Cognitive dissonance  
B. Stereotyping  
C. Situational factors 
D. Selective perception 

48. The study of people in relation to their fellow beings is known as ________.

A. Psychology 
B. Social Psychology  
C. Anthropology 
D. Sociology 

49. ________ are derived from person experiences & thus they are relatively less enduring. 

A. Values  
B. Attitudes 
C. Value & attitudes  
D. None of the above 

50. The 3 level analysis of OB constitutes 

A. individual, Group and Society  
B. Individual, Group and Organisation 
C. District, Group arid Society  
D. Individual, Culture and Organisation 

51. ________ is the process of screening out information that we are uncomfortable with or that contradict to our beliefs 

A. Perceptual context  
B. Selective perception 
C. Halo effect  
D. Stereotyping 

52. I don't like that company- is _________ components of attitude. 

A. Affective component 
B. Cognitive component 
C. Intentional component  
D. None of these 

53. They are the worst firm I have ever dealt with is ________ components of attitude. 

A. Affective component  
B. Cognitive component 
C. Intentional component  
D. None of these 

54. I will never do business with them again is ___________ component of attitude. 

A. Affective component  
B. Cognitive component 
C. Intentional component 
D. None of these

For More Detail Contact Us And Follow On Study For Buddies

Thank You