Study For Buddies: SY Semester 4 MCQS
Showing posts with label SY Semester 4 MCQS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label SY Semester 4 MCQS. Show all posts

Thursday, August 6, 2026

Macro Economic Issues and Policies (MEIP) Exam Paper – 26 February 2020 | Solved MCQs, Answers & Explanations

August 06, 2026 0
Macro Economic Issues and Policies (MEIP) Exam Paper – 26 February 2020 | Solved MCQs, Answers & Explanations
S.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 4


MACRO ECONOMIC ISSUES AND POLICIES
(MEIP)
EXAM PAPER – 26 FEB 2020
 
Q1. To produce new currency, RBI adopted ______ reserve system in the year ______.

A. Minimum, 1957
B. Minimum, 1956
C. Proportionate, 1957
D. Proportionate, 1956

Explanation:
Initially RBI followed the Proportional Reserve System.
Since 1957, RBI follows the Minimum Reserve System, under which it maintains minimum reserves of gold and foreign securities.

Q2. In order to understand the burden of public borrowings ________.

A. Rely upon government borrowing data
B. We should talk to World Bank and IMF
C. Classify borrowing into internal and external segment
D. Understand government expenditure external segments

Explanation:
Public debt is mainly divided into:
Internal Debt
External Debt
This classification helps understand the burden of public borrowing.

Q3. The credit creation by the commercial banks directly depends on ______.

A. Other Deposits with RBI and Bank Rate
B. Other Deposits with RBI and CRR
C. Primary Deposits and Bank Rate
D. Primary Deposits and CRR

Explanation:
Credit creation depends upon:
Primary Deposits (base for lending)
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), which determines how much banks must keep with RBI.
Higher CRR → Less lending.
Lower CRR → More lending.

Q4. According to Chakravarty Committee, which of the following is the main objective of Monetary Policy?

A. Increasing Employment Opportunities
B. Economic Growth
C. Equitable Distribution of National Income
D. Price Stabilization

Explanation:
The Chakravarty Committee recommended that the primary objective of monetary policy should be price stability, ensuring inflation remains under control while supporting economic growth.

Q5. Bank rate policy will fail if there are ______.

A. Integrated financial system
B. Elastic interest rates
C. Alternative sources of borrowing available
D. Conducive economic environment

Explanation:
If businesses can borrow from other financial institutions instead of commercial banks, changes in the Bank Rate will have little effect.
Hence Bank Rate Policy becomes ineffective.

Q6. Velocity of circulation of money refers to ______.

A. Circulation of money among people.
B. Rate of change in currency against deposit.
C. Average number of times a unit of currency changes hands.
D. Circulation of money between and people.

Explanation:
Velocity of Money means:
The average number of times one unit of money is used to purchase goods and services during a given period.
Higher velocity → Higher economic activity.
Lower velocity → Slower economy.

Q7. Which of the following is correct with reference to the money supply in India?

I. The share of currency in circulation is highest in the money supply.
II. The share of bank money is highest in the money supply.
III. CRR and credit money are inversely related.

A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II

Explanation: Statement I : Incorrect
In India, bank money (demand deposits) forms a larger share of the money supply than currency in circulation.

Statement II : Correct
Money supply mainly consists of:
Currency with the public
Demand deposits with banks
Demand deposits (bank money) generally have the largest share.

Statement III : Correct
CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio) and credit creation have an inverse relationship.
Higher CRR → Less lending
Lower CRR → More lending

Q8. Weighted Index Number is superior to Simple Index Number because ________.

A. Weights are assigned as per importance of commodities.
B. Weights are arbitrary to the extent of madness.
C. Weights are assigned as per choice.
D. Weights are generally uniform in nature.

Explanation
Weighted Index Numbers assign greater importance to commodities that consumers purchase more frequently.
For example: Rice has greater importance than pencils in calculating the Cost of Living Index.
Hence Weighted Index is more realistic.

Q9. If the initial deposit is ₹50,000 and CRR is 30%, find the credit multiplier.

A. 2.60
B. 2.33
C. 2.25
D. 2

Explanation

Formula
Credit Multiplier = 1 / CRR
CRR = 30%
         = 30/100 
         = 0.30
Multiplier = 1 ÷ 0.30
                 = 3.33
However, in many university papers the expected answer is based on the credit creation multiplier (1 − CRR) / CRR:

Hence the expected answer is B. 2.33.

OR

Formula
The Credit Multiplier (Cm) is: Credit Multiplier = 1−CRR​​/
CRR 

Calculation

CRR = 30% = 0.30
Cm = 1−0.30/0.30
      = 0.70/0.30
      = 2.33

Note: The initial deposit of ₹50,000 is not required to calculate the credit multiplier. It is needed only if the question asks for the total credit created.

Q10. One of the following is NOT a function of money.

A. Medium of Exchange
B. Difference of Payment
C. Measure of Value
D. Store of Value

Explanation
Functions of Money:
✔ Medium of Exchange
✔ Measure of Value
✔ Store of Value
✔ Standard of Deferred Payments
There is no function called Difference of Payment.

Q11. As an objective of monetary policy, price stability is contradictory to the objective of

A. Equity of income distribution
B. Reduction of unemployment
C. Removal of poverty
D. Exchange rate stability

Explanation
Sometimes reducing unemployment requires expansionary monetary policy.
Expansionary policy increases money supply.
Too much money supply may increase inflation.
Thus there is often a trade-off between:
Price Stability
Employment

Q12. In ______ order to adjust liquidity in the economy the RBI principally uses one of the following policies.

A. Income Policy
B. Fiscal Policy
C. Repo Rate Policy
D. Selective Credit Control Policy

Explanation
Repo Rate is the main monetary policy instrument used by RBI to regulate liquidity.
Higher Repo Rate
→ Less borrowing
→ Lower money supply
Lower Repo Rate
→ More borrowing
→ Higher liquidity

Q13. Match the Following

I. Stanley Withers

a. Conventional approach to money

II. Milton Friedman

b. Chicago approach to money

II. Gurley and Shaw

c. Weighted sum approach to money

IV. Radcliffe Committee

d. Central bank approach to money


A. (I-a) (II-b) (III-c) (IV-d)
B. (I-b) (II-a) (III-d) (IV-c)
C. (I-a) (II-c) (III-b) (IV-d)
D. (I-b) (II-a) (III-c) (IV-d)

Q14. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statements
I. Currency coins are produced and circulated by the Government of India.
II. Currency coins are produced by the Government of India and circulated by RBI.

A. I is false and II is not true
B. I is true and II is not true
C. I is not true and II is not false
D. I is not false and II is false

Explanation
Coins are minted by the Government of India.
They are put into circulation through RBI.
Thus:
Statement I → False
Statement II → True

Q15. One of the following is NOT a type of budget deficit.

A. Revenue Deficit
B. Fiscal Deficit
C. Overhead Deficit
D. Primary Deficit

Explanation
Recognized budget deficits are:
Revenue Deficit
Fiscal Deficit
Primary Deficit
There is no concept of "Overhead Deficit" in public finance.

Q16. Over dependence on borrowing to meet deficit financing may lead the country to ______.

A. Debt Trap
B. Revenue Trap
C. Financial Trap
D. Deficit Trap

Explanation
If a government borrows continuously, it may eventually need new loans just to repay old loans and interest.
This situation is called a Debt Trap.

Q17. The commercial banks rush to purchase new securities and treasury bills because

A. Securities are not always available
B. Banks want to invest in low income
C. Securities can enhance capital
D. Banks will have to comply upon statutory requirements

Explanation:

Banks invest in Government Securities and Treasury Bills mainly to meet Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirements prescribed by RBI.
These investments are safe, liquid, and help banks comply with banking regulations.

Q18. If we deduct the interest component from fiscal deficit, we will obtain ______.

A. Primary Deficit
B. Budget Deficit
C. Fiscal Deficit
D. Revenue Deficit

Explanation:
Formula: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments
Primary deficit shows the current year's borrowing requirement excluding interest payments on previous debt.

Q19. One of the following is not a source of non-tax revenue of the government.


A. External Grants
B. Profit of Public Sector Units
C. Dividend of the Company
D. Customs Duties

Explanation
Non-Tax Revenue includes:
External grants
Dividends
Profits from Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
Fees and fines
Customs Duty is a tax revenue, not a non-tax revenue.

Q20. Which of the following statements are not false with reference to the store of value function of money?
Statements

I. Production and consumption of goods and services are not instantaneous.
II. Certainty of life.
III. Accumulative nature of people.
IV. Uncertainty of life.

A. II, III and IV
B. I, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II and III

Explanation
The store of value function means money can be saved for future use.
I Correct – Production and consumption happen at different times.
II Incorrect – Life is not certain.
III Correct – People like to accumulate wealth.
IV Correct – Uncertainty encourages saving.

Q21. Fisher's Equation of Quantity Theory is ______.

A. Based on Liquidity Preference
B. A Mathematical Truism
C. Related to Wealth of Wealth Holders
D. Related to Aggregate Savings

Explanation
Fisher's Equation:
where:
M = Money Supply
V = Velocity of Money
P = Price Level
T = Volume of Transactions
It is called a mathematical truism because it is an accounting identity.

Q22. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. Increase in REPO Rate leads to increase in money supply.
II. Increase in REPO Rate leads to decrease in money supply.
III. Increase in REPO Rate leads to increase in interest rate.
IV. Increase in REPO Rate represents Tight Money Policy.

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I and III

Explanation
When the RBI increases the Repo Rate:
Borrowing becomes expensive.
Banks lend less.
Money supply decreases.
Interest rates increase.
This is called a Tight Money Policy.
Therefore:
I False
II  True
III True
IV True

Q23. The Bank Rate Policy will be effective if there is ______.

A. Cordial relationship between banks and RBI
B. Favorable economic environment
C. Efficient banking system
D. All of the above

Explanation
For Bank Rate Policy to work effectively:
Banks should cooperate with RBI.
The banking system should be efficient.
Economic conditions should support policy transmission.
All these factors are necessary.

Q24. Which of the following are the basic limitations of commodity money?

I. Heterogeneity
II. Non-divisibility
III. Enforceability
IV. Difficult to store

A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV

Explanation
Limitations of commodity money include:
Lack of uniformity (heterogeneity)
Difficulty in dividing
Difficulty in storage
Enforceability is not a limitation of commodity money.

Q25. The formula to calculate the Credit Multiplier (Cm) is ______.

A. Cm = (AID − AR) / AR
B. Cm = ACC / A
C. Cm = (1 − r) / r
D. All of the above

Explanation
These are different forms used in textbooks to express the concept of the credit multiplier, depending on the notation adopted.
The commonly used form is:
Hence, the expected answer is All of the Above.

Q26. According to Keynes, the following statement(s) are true.

I. Transaction Demand and Precautionary Demand are known and already determined.
II. The precautionary demand for money is volatile in nature.
III. If the interest rate is expected to increase, the speculators would hold more idle cash.
IV. Interest rate and bond prices are directly related.

A. I, III, IV
B. I, II, IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III

Explanation
Transaction and precautionary demand mainly depend on income and are generally predictable.
II  Precautionary demand can vary depending on uncertainty.
III  If interest rates are expected to rise (and bond prices are expected to fall), people prefer to hold cash.
IV  Incorrect. Interest rates and bond prices are inversely, not directly, related.

Q27. One of the following methods is used by the RBI to control the flow of credit in the economy towards desirable channels.

A. Open Market Operation
B. Bank Rate Policy
C. Margin Requirements
D. Variable Reserve Ratio

Explanation
The RBI uses Selective (Qualitative) Credit Control to direct credit to priority sectors.
Margin Requirement is a selective credit control method.
Quantitative methods include:
Open Market Operation
Bank Rate
Variable Reserve Ratio (CRR/SLR)
Therefore, the correct answer is C.

Q28. One of the following is not an objective of Fiscal Policy.
 
A. Exchange Rate Stability
B. Equality of Income Distribution
C. Price Stability
D. High Economic Growth

Explanation
Objectives of Fiscal Policy include:
Economic Growth
Price Stability
Employment
Reduction of Income Inequality
Exchange Rate Stability is mainly achieved through Monetary Policy and foreign exchange management, not fiscal policy.

Q29. Which of the following is/are the source of money supply in India?

A. RBI
B. Commercial Banks
C. Government of India
D. All of the Above

Explanation
Money supply comes from:
RBI (currency notes)
Commercial Banks (credit creation)
Government of India (coins and fiscal operations)
Hence, All of the Above.

Q30. Following statements are true about Government Expenditures.

I. Government expenditures are autonomous in nature and independent in character.
II. Government expenditure is induced in nature and depends upon the level of income.
III. Irrespective of the nature of investment, government expenditure is an injection into the economy.

A. II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. I, II and III

Explanation
Statement I  True
Statement II  False (Government expenditure is generally autonomous, not induced.)
Statement III True (Government spending injects income into the economy.)

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

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Tuesday, August 4, 2026

MACRO ECONOMIC ISSUES AND POLICIES (MEIP) MCQS

August 04, 2026 0
MACRO ECONOMIC ISSUES AND POLICIES (MEIP) MCQS
 S.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 4

MACRO ECONOMIC ISSUES AND POLICIES

MACRO ECONOMIC ISSUES AND POLICIES
(MEIP)
MCQS

🎓 Introduction

Enhance your preparation for the S.Y. B.Com Semester 4 examination in Macro Economic Issues and Policies (MEIP) with comprehensive and clearly explained Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).

1. Money includes

(a) Currencies and demand deposits
(b) Bonds, government securities
(c) Equity shares
(d) All of the above

Explanation: Money is anything that is generally accepted as a medium of exchange. It is used to buy goods and services and to make payments.
Currency (notes and coins) and demand deposits (money in savings/current accounts that can be withdrawn anytime) are called money because they are directly accepted in transactions.

Why is Answer (a) Correct? 
Currency is legal tender.
Demand deposits can be used through cheques, UPI, debit cards, etc.
Both are immediately available for payment.

Exam Tip
M1 = C + DD
C = Currency
DD = Demand Deposits
Money = Currency + Demand Deposits


2. One of the following is perfect example of near money

(a) Bonds and debentures
(b) Equity shares of ITC Company
(c) Gold
(d) Bills of exchange

Explanation: Near money refers to financial assets that are not money themselves but can be converted into cash quickly with little loss in value.
Examples include: Bonds
Debentures
Treasury Bills
Fixed Deposits 

Why is Answer (a) Correct?
Bonds and debentures can be sold in the financial market and converted into cash with relatively little difficulty.

Exam Tip
Near Money = BTFG
B → Bonds
T → Treasury Bills
F → Fixed Deposits
G → Government Securities
Remember: "BTFG = Near Money"

3. Which one of the following is not an example of near money?

(a) Bills of exchange
(b) Bonds and debentures
(c) Equity shares of a public limited company
(d) Treasury bills of the Government of India

Explanation: Near money consists of financial assets that are highly liquid and can be converted into cash easily.
Treasury Bills, Bonds, Debentures and Bills of Exchange are all considered near money.
Equity shares are not near money because their prices change frequently and they involve higher risk.

Why is Answer (c) Correct?
Shares do not have stable value and cannot be treated like cash.

Exam Tip
Near Money = BBTG
B → Bills of Exchange
B → Bonds & Debentures
T → Treasury Bills
G → Government Securities

Equity Shares = Investment, NOT Near Money

4. Which of the following statements is/are true?

(i) M1 = Currency with public + Demand deposits with banks
(ii) M2 = M1 + Post Office saving deposits
(iii) M3 = M1 + Time deposits with banks
(iv) M4 = M3 + All Post Office deposits

(a) Only (i) above
(b) Both (i) and (iv) are correct
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) All of the above

Explanation:
These are the official measures of money supply in India:

M1 = Currency with Public + Demand Deposits + Other Deposits with RBI
M2 = M1 + Post Office Savings Deposits
M3 = M1 + Time Deposits with Banks
M4 = M3 + All Post Office Deposits 

Why is Answer (d) Correct?
Each statement correctly describes a standard money supply measure.

Exam Tip
Remember the order: 
  • M1 → Narrow Money
  • M2 → M1 + PO Savings
  • M3 → M1 + Time Deposits
  • M4 → M3 + All PO Deposits
5. M1 in the money stock in India refers to

(a) Post Office savings deposits
(b) Currency plus demand deposits plus other deposits with RBI
(c) Total Post Office Deposits
(d) Time deposits with banks

Explanation:
M1 is called Narrow Money because it includes the most liquid forms of money.
Formula:
M1 = Currency with Public + Demand Deposits with Banks + Other Deposits with RBI

Why is Answer (b) Correct?
It is the official definition of M1 used in India.

Exam Tip
M1 = Narrow Money (Most Liquid Money)

6. What is the basic difference between money stock measures M3 and M4?

(a) M3 is more than M4
(b) M3 is a part of M1 but M4 is not part of M1
(c) M4 includes all Post Office deposits but they are not included in M3
(d) M1 is a part of M1 and M1 is not part of M3

Explanation:
M3 (Broad Money)
includes:
  • Currency with the public
  • Demand deposits with banks
  • Other deposits with RBI
  • Time deposits with banks 
M4 includes everything in M3 plus all Post Office deposits (except National Savings Certificates).
Therefore, the main difference is the inclusion of Post Office deposits in M4.

Why is Answer (c) Correct?
M4 is broader than M3 because it includes all eligible Post Office deposits.

Exam Tip
M4 = M3 + All Post Office Deposits

7. The basic point of distinction between narrow and broad money is the treatment of ______

(a) Post office deposits
(b) Time deposits with banks
(c) Savings deposits of bank
(d) Currency

Explanation:
Narrow Money (M1)
contains only highly liquid money.
Broad Money (M3) adds time deposits with banks.
Therefore, time deposits are the main distinguishing feature.

Why is Answer (b) Correct?
Time deposits are included in Broad Money but excluded from Narrow Money.

Exam Tip
Broad Money = Narrow Money + Time Deposits

8. Time deposits with banks are included in ______ measure of money stock.

(a) M1
(b) M3
(c) M4
(d) Both in (b) and (c)

Explanation:
Time deposits are first included in M3.
Since M4 = M3 + Post Office Deposits, M4 also contains time deposits.

Why is Answer (d) Correct?
Both M3 and M4 include time deposits with banks.

Exam Tip
Remember: 
  • M1 → No Time Deposits
  • M3 → Yes
  • M4 → Yes
9. Money is

(a) Constant in purchasing power
(b) Acceptable only when it has intrinsic value
(c) The most liquid of all assets
(d) All of the above

Explanation:
Liquidity means how quickly an asset can be used to make payments.
Money is perfectly liquid because it can immediately buy goods and services.

Why is Answer (c) Correct?
Money requires no conversion before use.

Exam Tip
Money = Highest Liquidity

10. According to ______ money is what money does.

(a) Crowther
(b) Walker
(c) Burstein
(d) Keynes

Explanation:
Economist Walker explained money by emphasizing its functions rather than its physical form.
His famous statement is:
"Money is what money does."
This means anything performing the functions of money can be considered money.

Why is Answer (b) Correct?
Walker focused on the functional definition of money.

Exam Tip
Walker = "Money is what money does."

11. Anything that serves as money possesses the essential characteristic that it must ______

(a) Be generally acceptable
(b) Be issued by the State Government
(c) Have inherited value
(d) Not be wholly fiduciary

Explanation:
The most important feature of money is general acceptability. People must be willing to accept it in exchange for goods and services. Without general acceptance, money cannot perform its basic functions.

Why is Answer (a) Correct?
Money is useful only when everyone accepts it as payment.

Exam Tip
The first quality of money = General Acceptability.

12. The chief function of money is that it acts as ______

(a) Providing liquidity
(b) A medium of exchange
(c) A resource for credit creation
(d) None of these

Explanation:
  • Money performs many functions: Medium of Exchange
  • Measure of Value
  • Store of Value
  • Standard of Deferred Payments 
Among these, the primary (chief) function is acting as a medium of exchange.

Why is Answer (b) Correct?
Money removes the problem of barter by making buying and selling easy.

Exam Tip
Chief Function = Medium of Exchange

13. Money in traditional sense serves as ______

(a) A medium of exchange
(b) A store of value
(c) Both medium of exchanged and store of value
(d) Neither medium of exchange or store of value

Explanation:
In the traditional sense, money was introduced mainly to facilitate the exchange of goods and services. Before money existed, people used the barter system, where goods were exchanged directly for other goods.
The barter system had many problems, such as: 
  • Double coincidence of wants
  • Difficulty in measuring value
  • Difficulty in storing wealth
  • Difficulty in making future payments 
To solve these problems, money was introduced. Therefore, its original and primary purpose was to act as a medium of exchange.
Although money also performs the function of storing value, this is considered a secondary function, not its traditional or primary role.
Money was first created to make buying and selling easier. It replaced the barter system by serving as a medium of exchange.

Why is Option (a) Correct?
Money was originally created to make the exchange of goods and services easier. Hence, Medium of Exchange is the traditional function of money.

Exam Tip
Traditional Money = Trade = Medium of Exchange
Remember:
Barter System → Money → Medium of Exchange

14. In modern economy, the major primary function of money is that it serves as ______.

(a) A store of value
(b) A transfer of value
(c) A medium of exchange
(d) A speculation instrument

Explanation:
The primary function of money is to act as a medium of exchange. It eliminates the difficulties of the barter system by allowing people to buy and sell goods and services easily.
Example:
Instead of exchanging wheat for rice, you simply pay money to buy rice.

Why is (c) Correct?
Money is accepted by everyone for making payments, making trade faster and easier.

Exam Tip
Primary Function of Money = Medium of Exchange

15. When a debtor promises to pay the amount in future to the creditor, money serves as ______.

(a) A store of value
(b) A transfer of value
(c) A medium of exchange
(d) A standard for deferred payments

Explanation:
Money helps in making future payments. Loans, EMIs, salaries, rent, and insurance premiums are all examples where payments are made in the future.

Why is (d) Correct?
Money acts as a common standard for future obligations.

Exam Tip
Deferred = Future Payment
Remember:
Loan = Standard of Deferred Payment

16. Which is the most liquid measure of money supply?

(a) M1
(b) M2
(c) M3
(d) M4

Explanation:
Liquidity means how quickly money can be used.
M1 contains: 
  • Currency
  • Demand Deposits
  • Other Deposits with RBI 
These are immediately available.

Why is (a) Correct?
M1 is called Narrow Money and is the most liquid measure of money supply.

Exam Tip
Highest Liquidity = M1

17. The concept of narrow money refers to ______.

(a) M1
(b) M2
(c) M3
(d) M4

Explanation
Narrow Money includes only the most liquid forms of money.
Formula:
M1 = Currency + Demand Deposits + Other Deposits with RBI

Why is (a) Correct?
M1 contains money that is readily available for spending.

Exam Tip
Narrow Money = M1

18. The concept of broad money refers to ______.

(a) M1
(b) M2
(c) M3
(d) M4

Explanation:
Broad Money includes: 
  • M1
  • Time Deposits with Banks 
Formula:
M3 = M1 + Time Deposits
It is the most commonly used measure of money supply in India.

Why is (c) Correct?
M3 measures a wider money supply than M1 by including time deposits.

Exam Tip
Remember:
  • M1 = Narrow Money
  • M3 = Broad Money
  • M4 = Broad Money + Post Office Deposits
19. What will cause interest rates to rise?

(a) The rise in general level of prices
(b) The rise in standard of living
(c) The increase in demand for money
(d) The increase in money supply

Explanation:
Interest rate is the price of borrowing money. When more people want to borrow money, the demand for money increases. If the supply of money remains the same, banks charge a higher interest rate.
Example:
Many people apply for home loans at the same time. Banks have limited funds, so loan interest rates may increase.

Why is (c) Correct?
More demand for money → Higher interest rate.

Exam Tip
Demand ↑ = Interest Rate ↑
Money Supply ↑ = Interest Rate ↓

20. The least profitable asset that the commercial banks possess is ______.

(a) Cash in hand
(b) Money at call
(c) Bills discounted
(d) Loans and advances

Explanation:
Banks earn profits mainly from loans and investments.
Cash kept in the bank's vault earns no interest, so it is the least profitable asset.

Why is (a) Correct?
Cash provides liquidity but does not generate income.

Exam Tip
Cash = Safest Asset + Least Profitable Asset

21. The most liquid asset, next to cash, possessed by the banks is ______.

(a) Advances to customers
(b) Money at call
(c) Treasury bills
(d) Inland bills

Explanation
Money at call (call money) can be recovered within 24 hours or on demand. Therefore, it is the most liquid asset after cash.

Why is (b) Correct?
Banks can quickly convert call money into cash whenever required.

Exam Tip
Liquidity Order:
Cash → Call Money → Treasury Bills → Loans

22. Maintaining a cash reserve ratio of 20% with primary deposits of Rs. 1,000, the total derivative deposits created by banks would be ______.

(a) Rs. 2,500
(b) Rs. 5,000
(c) Rs. 4,000
(d) Rs. 1,200

Explanation
Formula:
Credit Multiplier = 1 / CRR
CRR = 20% = 0.20
Credit Multiplier = 1 ÷ 0.20 = 5
Total Deposits = ₹1,000 × 5 = ₹5,000
Derivative (Secondary) Deposits = Total Deposits − Primary Deposit
= ₹5,000 − ₹1,000
= ₹4,000

Why is (c) Correct?
The question asks for derivative deposits, not total deposits.

Exam Tip
Remember:
  • Total Deposit = Primary Deposit × Multiplier
  • Derivative Deposit = Total Deposit − Primary Deposit
23. If the banking system has reserves of Rs. 500 crore and the reserve requirement is 20%, to what extent can the system support demand deposits?

(a) Rs. 5,000 crore
(b) Rs. 2,000 crore
(c) Rs. 10,000 crore
(d) Rs. 2,500 crore

Explanation:
Formula:
Demand Deposits = Reserves ÷ CRR

= ₹500 crore ÷ 0.20
= ₹2,500 crore

Why is (d) Correct?
Banks can support demand deposits equal to five times their reserves when CRR is 20%.

Exam Tip
Demand Deposits = Reserves ÷ CRR
Example:
CRR = 20%
Reserve = ₹500 crore
Demand Deposit = ₹500 ÷ 0.20 = ₹2,500 crore

24. When the commercial banks create credit they are actually increasing ______.

(a) The national debt
(b) The supply of money
(c) The purchasing power of the rupee
(d) The real wealth of the country

Explanation
Commercial banks create credit by giving loans. Instead of giving cash, banks credit the loan amount to the customer's account. This increases bank deposits, which are a part of the money supply.
For example: 
  • A bank gives a loan of ₹5 lakh.
  • The amount is credited to the customer's account.
  • The customer can now use this money for payments.
  • Thus, the money supply increases. 
Why is (b) Correct?
Credit creation increases deposits in the banking system, which increases the money supply.

Exam Tip
Commercial Banks Create Credit = Increase Money Supply

25. Commercial bank is an institution ______.

(a) Dealing in securities
(b) Providing credit
(c) Helping farmers and small industrialists
(d) Providing money to the government

Explanation:
A commercial bank accepts deposits and provides loans and advances to individuals and businesses. Providing credit is its main function.
Examples: 
  • Home Loans
  • Education Loans
  • Business Loans
  • Vehicle Loans 
Why is (b) Correct?
The primary function of a commercial bank is to provide credit to the economy.

Exam Tip
Commercial Bank = Accept Deposits + Provide Credit

26. Banks perform the function of ______.

(a) Receiving deposits
(b) Lending money
(c) Agency services
(d) All of the above

Explanation:
Commercial banks perform several important functions:
Primary Functions 
  • Accepting deposits
  • Lending money 
Secondary Functions 
  • Agency services (collecting cheques, paying bills, fund transfer)
  • Utility services (locker facility, ATM, internet banking) 
Why is (d) Correct?
Banks perform all these functions, making option (d) the correct answer.

Exam Tip
Remember the three major functions: 
  • Accept Deposits
  • Give Loans
  • Agency Services 
27. Agency functions are ______.

(a) Carried out by the Reserve Bank of India
(b) Carried out by the commercial banks
(c) Not carried out by the commercial bank
(d) Carried out by the government of india

Explanation:
Agency functions
are services that commercial banks perform on behalf of their customers. In these functions, the bank acts as an agent for the customer and carries out various financial transactions.
Some common agency functions are: 
  • Collection of cheques, bills and dividends
  • Payment of electricity, water and telephone bills
  • Payment of insurance premiums
  • Collection of interest and dividends
  • Purchase and sale of shares and securities
  • Fund transfer services
  • Standing instructions (e.g., monthly EMI or SIP payments) 
Since these services are provided by commercial banks, the correct answer is Option (b).

Why is Option (b) Correct?
Commercial banks act as agents for their customers and perform financial services on their behalf. Therefore, agency functions are carried out by commercial banks.

Exam Tip
"ABC Rule"
A → Agency Functions
B → Bank (Commercial Bank)
C → Customer
Agency Functions = Commercial Bank works on behalf of the Customer.

28. Which of the following is NOT a function of the commercial bank?

(a) The provision of safe deposit facilities
(b) The provision of a cheque system
(c) Lending loans to private firms
(d) Acting as a lender of last resort

Explanation:
Commercial banks perform several important functions such as accepting deposits, providing loans, cheque facilities, locker (safe deposit) facilities, and agency services.
However, acting as the "Lender of Last Resort" is the function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), not commercial banks.
The RBI provides emergency financial assistance to commercial banks when they face a shortage of funds.

Why is Option (d) Correct?
The RBI is known as the Lender of Last Resort because it lends money to commercial banks during financial emergencies.

Exam Tips
  • Commercial Bank: Deposits, Loans, Locker, Cheques
  • RBI: Currency Issue, Monetary Policy, Lender of Last Resort
29.Which of the following is NOT a function of the Central Bank?

(a) Credit control
(b) Credit creation
(c) Exchange control
(d) Government Bank

Explanation:
The Central Bank (RBI) controls the country's money supply and regulates the banking system. Its functions include: 
  • Credit Control
  • Exchange Control
  • Banker to the Government
  • Banker's Bank
  • Currency Issue 
Credit creation is mainly done by commercial banks by giving loans and advances.

Why is Option (b) Correct?
Commercial banks create credit by granting loans, whereas the RBI controls the amount of credit in the economy.

Exam Tips
Remember this comparison:

Commercial Banks              Central Bank (RBI)
Creates Credit                        Controls Credit
Accepts Public Deposits        Does not accept deposits from the general public
Provides Loans                      Regulates Banks
Customer Banking                Monetary Policy

30.The Central Bank does NOT perform the function of ______.

(a) The banker to the Government
(b) Accepting deposits from commercial banks
(c) Accepting deposits from the general public
(d) Acting as a clearing house

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the Central Bank of India.
It performs important functions such as: 
  • Banker to the Government
  • Banker's Bank
  • Accepting deposits from commercial banks
  • Acting as a clearing house
  • Issuing currency
  • Controlling credit 
However, it does not accept deposits from the general public. This function is performed by commercial banks like SBI, HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, etc.

Why is Option (c) Correct?
The RBI deals mainly with the Government and commercial banks, not with individual customers. People open savings and current accounts in commercial banks, not in the RBI.

Exam Tips
"RBI = Bank of Banks, Not Bank of People"
  • General Public → Commercial Banks
  • Commercial Banks → RBI

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Wednesday, March 6, 2024

ELEMENTS OF INDIRECT TAXES (EIDT) FEB-2024

March 06, 2024 0
ELEMENTS OF INDIRECT TAXES (EIDT) FEB-2024
S.Y. B.COM
SEMESTER 4

ELEMENTS OF INDIRECT TAXES 
(EIDT) 
MCQS - FEBRUARY 2024

1. Which of the following is not falling under the definition of goods?

(A) Machinery
(B) Computer
(C) Mutual fund
(D) Tree attached to land

2. Supply of goods by Mr. Mohan of Bhubaneswar to Mr. Manoj of Madras after value addition at 20% on Rs.18,000. The applicable GST rate is 18%. Then __________ will be levied on this transaction.

(A) IGST of Rs.3888
(B) CGST Rs.1944 and SGST Rs.1944
(C) CGST Rs.1944 and UTGST Rs.1944
(D) CGST of Rs.3888

3. Goods supplied to Ms. Kamini of Noida by Mr. Karan of Lucknow, after value addition at 20% on Rs.21,600. The applicable GST rate is 18%. Then __________ will be levied on this transaction.

(A) IGST of Rs.4665.60
(B) CGST Rs.2332.80 and SGST Rs.2332.80
(C) CGST Rs.2332.80 and UTGST Rs.2332.80
(D) UTGST of Rs.4665.60

4. Rahul of Uttar Pradesh sells 400 units of an article at the rate of ₹ 1,000 per article (without GST). The buyer is Mr. Ketan of Patna. The applicable GST rate is 18%. Then __________ will be levied on this transaction. 

(A) IGST of Rs.72000
(B) CGST Rs.36000 and SGST Rs.36000
(C) CGST Rs.36000 and UTGST Rs.36000
(D) CGST Rs.36000 and IGST Rs.36000

5. Find out aggregate turnover of Mr. X, if goods were supplied as given: inward supply under RCM Rs.50,000, exempted supply Rs.20,000, non-taxable supply Rs.35,000, export of taxable goods Rs.55,000, and inter-state supply Rs.1,20,000.

(A) Rs. 2,80,000
(B) Rs. 1,60,000
(C) Rs. 2,30,000
(D) Rs. 2,60,000

6. Calculate GST payable as per applicability in case of supply of goods by Mr. L of Shillong to Mr. M of Amaravati, value Rs. 20,000, and consider further value addition @ 20% on Rs. 20,000 (CGST@ 9%, SGST/UTGST@ 9%, IGST@18%).

(A) CGST Rs. 2160 and SGST Rs. 2160
(B) CGST Rs. 2160 and UTGST Rs. 2160
(C) IGST Rs. 3600
(D) IGST Rs. 4320

7. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) Goods supplied from Daman to Port Blair then IGST shall be levied.
(B) Goods supplied within Delhi jurisdiction then CGST and UTGST shall be levied.
(C) Import is treated under inter-state supply.
(D) Goods supplied from Mysore to Bengaluru then CGST and SGST shall be levied.

8. Mr. X of Kanpur agreed to supply goods to Mr. Y of Delhi on 23nd September, 2023. The goods were removed for supply by Mr. X on 29th September, 2023 and goods were received by Mr. Y on 30th September, 2023. Mr. X needs to issue tax invoice __________.

(A) On/before 23nd September, 2023
(B) On/before 29th September, 2023
(C) On/before 30th September, 2023
(D) After 30th September, 2023

9. Date of invoice issued by supplier is 14.10.2023; date of receipt of goods is 05.12.2023; date of payment made by recipient of goods is 25.11.2023. What will be time of supply in case of Reverse charge mechanism (RCM)?

(A) 13.11.2023
(B) 14.11.2023
(C) 25.11.2023
(D) 05.12.2023

10. Date of completion of service is 01.07.2023; date of invoice issued by supplier is 10.07.2023 and date of receipt of payment from recipient is 01.08.2023. What will be the time of supply in case of Forward Charge Mechanism (FCM)?

(A) 10.07.2023
(B) 01.07.2023
(C) 01.08.2023
(D) 31.07.2023

11. The rate of GST for service provider (other than restaurant) who has opted for composition scheme is __________.

(A) 1% (0.5% CGST+0.5% SGST)
(B) 2% (1% CGST+1% SGST)
(C) 5% (2.5% CGST+2.5% SGST)
(D) 6% (3% CGST+3% SGST)

12. From the following, who is eligible to get himself registered under Composition Scheme?

(A) Person who is making supply of taxable goods from Gujarat to Punjab only (whose aggregate turnover of last financial year was Rs.1.2 Cr)
(B) Person who is making interstate supply of goods in Arunachal Pradesh only (whose aggregate turnover of last financial year was Rs.76 lakh) 
(C) Person who is engaged in manufacturing of Ice-cream (whose aggregate turnover of last financial year in Gujarat was Rs.45 lakh) 
(D) Person who is making supply of taxable goods from Vadodara to Surat only (whose aggregate turnover of last financial year was Rs.1.4 Cr)

13. Determine the Value of Supply of goods, if the value of good supplied Rs. 85,000; CGST payable on goods Rs.5,000 and other taxes payable Rs. 500 (not including in the above value); Subsidy received from Government of Gujarat ₹ 1,500 and from manufacturer of goods Rs. 1000 (deducted from above value); and trade discount given Rs. 4,000.

(A) Rs.82,500
(B) Rs.87,500
(C) Rs.81,000
(D) Rs.84,000

14. Determine whether Mr. Y of Manipur is required to obtain GST registration or not if he is engaged in the business of taxable supply of goods ₹ 10 lakh and taxable supply of services ₹  2 lakh within the state.

(A) Liable to get registered under GST as supply is only within the state.
(B) Not liable to get registered under GST as turnover of services doesn't exceeds threshold limit 
(C) Not liable to get registered under GST as supply doesn't include interstate supply.
(D) Liable to get registered under GST as turnover exceeds threshold limit of 10 lakh.

15. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) A plot of land is considered under immovable goods.
(B) Unclaimed dividend is an exempt actionable claim as per Schedule - III.
(C) GST is neither income nor expense for registered businessmen in the course of business.
(D) Supply includes disposal of business asset.

16. Which one is not a feature of GST?

(A) It is a Value Addition Tax
(B) There is smooth input credit chain mechanism
(C) It eliminates double taxation problem
(D) It is a progressive in nature

17. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(A) All taxable persons may not be registered person.
(B) Import falls under RCM.
(C) Betting, gambling and lottery are taxable under GST.
(D) Disposal of personal asset is chargeable to GST.

18. Which one is not added to aggregate turnover?

(A) Exempt Supplies
(B) Export of goods and services
(C) Non-taxable supplies
(D) Import of goods

19. Which of the following statement is correct?

(A) GST is chargeable on sale of equity shares.
(B) GST is chargeable on sale of completed building.
(C) Assessee and taxpayer may be different under GST.
(D) Suppliers pay GST to government under RCM.

20. S Enterprise supplies 100 kits (at Rs. 5000 per kit) to R Stores for Rs. 5,00,000 (without GST). Each kit consists of 1 cricket bat, 1 badminton racket and 1 football. Assuming the rate of tax on bat 12%, badminton racket 28% and football 18%, ascertain nature of supply and accordingly the amount of GST payable will be __________ by S Enterprise.

(A) Mixed Supply & Rs. 60,000
(B) Composite Supply & Rs. 90,000
(C) Composite Supply & Rs. 1,40,000
(D) Mixed Supply & Rs. 1,40,000

21. Som Computers, a dealer has supplied a laptop (VoS Rs. 65,000) along with the laptop charger to a customer. Assuming the rate of GST on laptop 18%, and laptop charger 28%, ascertain nature of supply and accordingly, the amount of GST tax liability will be __________.

(A) Mixed Supply & Rs. 11,700 
(B) Composite Supply & Rs. 11,700
(C) Composite Supply & Rs. 18,200 
(D) Mixed Supply & Rs. 18,200

22. Determine the Time of Supply in accordance with provisions of section 12 of the CGST Act 2017 in case supply does not involve movement of goods. Date of invoice: 22/12/2023, Date when goods made available to the recipient 31/12/2023, and Date of receipt of payment: 15/12/2023.

(A) 22/12/2023
(B) 31/12/2023
(C) 15/12/2023
(D) 22/01/2024

23. Albert Enterprise provided services to Meem Enterprise on 25/04/2023 under RCM for which invoice of Rs. 50,000 was raised on 04/05/2023 and payment of Rs.50,000 was entered in books on 01/06/2023, the same was debited from bank account 05/06/2023. Find out Time of Supply.

(A) 01/06/2023
(B) 25/04/2023
(C) 04/05/2023
(D) 04/07/2023

24. S Ltd. purchased 50 shoes vouchers of Rs. 5,000 each for its employees from Skechers on 01/01/2024. The vouchers were issued by Skechers on 05/01/2024 and the same were given to the employees on 06/01/2024. The employees redeemed the vouchers on 10/01/2024. Determine Time of Supply.

(A) 01/01/2024
(B) 05/01/2024
(C) 06/01/2024
(D) 10/01/2024

25. S Ltd. sold goods with list price of Rs. 50,000 to M Ltd. Which is inclusive of IGST Rs. 10,440 but exclusive of municipal taxes Rs. 6,640 paid by M Ltd. On behalf of S Ltd. the supplier also considered subsidy of Rs. 2,000 received from NGO on sale of such goods (not given any effect to list price for such subsidy). Compute Value of Supply (VoS).

(A) Rs. 69,080
(B) Rs. 30,920
(C) Rs. 48,200
(D) Rs. 44,200

26. The VoS __________ GST amount and related cess; also it __________ discount given before or at the time of supply and shown in tax invoice.

(A) includes, includes
(B) excludes, excludes 
(C) excludes, includes
(D) includes, excludes

27. In case of "Non Identical Voucher", time of supply is:

(A) the date when voucher is redeemed
(B) the date of payment of GST
(C) the date of issue of voucher
(D) the date of return filing

28. ABC Ltd gifts goods to its employee without consideration. The cost of goods is Rs.30,000, and the fair market value is Rs. 40,000. What is the GST implication on this supply?

(A) No GST Applicable 
(B) GST on Rs. 30,000 
(C) GST on Rs. 40,000 
(D) GST on Rs. 10,000

29. Ms. Sangita is a saloon stylist, who has opted for composition levy for services. The turnover in last F.Y was Rs. 20 Lakhs. The turnover in the 1st quarter of current F.Y is Rs. 2 Lakhs. What will be the amount of GST payable under composition levy by Ms. Sangita for 1st quarter? 

(A) CGST Rs. 1,000 and SGST Rs. 1,000 
(B) IGST Rs. 2,000 
(C) CGST Rs.6,000 and SGST Rs. 6,000
(D) IGST Rs. 12,000

30. Match the following:


(A) 1-C, 2-E, 3-B, 4-A
(B) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(C) 1-E, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
(D) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

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Tuesday, February 27, 2024

Personality Development and Soft Skills in English for Effective Communication

February 27, 2024 0
Personality Development and Soft Skills in English for Effective Communication
S.Y B.COM
SEMESTER - 4

PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT AND SOFT SKILLS IN ENGLISH FOR EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION 

MCQS- MARCH 2020

1. What does ESTJ stand for in the domain of personality development? 

A. Extravagant, Silent, Tolerant, Joyful 
B. Extraversion, Sensing, Thinking, 
Judgment 
C. Extrovert, Sensible, Thoughtful, Jovial 
D. Extreme, Sick, Terrifying, Jealous 

2. Choose from the given options the one that denotes the example of peers: 

A. Classmates and friends 
B. Teachers 
C. Professionals 
D. Family members 

3. Fill in the blank: Pessimism and frustration are example of _______

A. Self esteem 
B. Positive Attitude 
C. Negative Attitude 
D. Self awareness 

4. You had a failure, but started a new chapter in life. this example is associated with one of the following options. Choose the most appropriate option. 

A. Schedule breaks, treat and reward for 
yourself 
B. Remove temptaions 
C. Forgive yourself and move forward 
D. Don't wait for it to feel right 

5. Fill in the blank: Disliking an individual without knowing one's abilities just  because of caste, religion, nationality is an example of ___________.

A. Prejudice 
B. Modeling 
C. Precursor 
D. Conditioning 

6. Which one of the folowing is a crucial step to improve your self discipline? 

A. Accept temptations 
B. Remove temptations 
C. Remove choices 
D. Accept falsifications 

7. Choose the most appropriate option from those given below for the set of features associated with Psychoticism. 

A. Egocentric, cold, aggressive 
B. Assertive, emotional, anxious  
C. Moody, shy, tense 
D. Lively, active, surgent 

8. Fill in the blank: Confidernce, ability to say no and positive outlook are signs of __________.

A. Low selfesteem 
B. Self-denial 
C. Healthy self esteem 
D. Self-esteem

9. Fill in the blank: The word 'personality' originates from the Latin word ________
which means _________.

A. Persona, mark
B. Persona, mask
C. Personal, mist
D. Personality, mosque

10. Choose the most appropriate option from the following that indicates the basis on which a person forms an opinion about you in a very short time.

A. Your selfishness
B. Your self awareness
C. Your self appearance
D. Your self esteem

11. Fill in the blank: ___________ is a measure of affect and emotional control.

A. Conscientiousness
B. Extraversion
C. Neuroticism
D. Openness to experience

12. What is he most memorable feature of an individual that strikes after first meeting with someone as considered by Americans?

A. Face
B. Smile
C. Looks
D. Shoes

13. Fill in the blank: _________ is the development of the organised pattem of behaviours and attitudes that makes a person distinctive.

A. Self Esteem
B. Personality Development
C. Self Awareness
D. Attitude

14. Match the following and choose the most appropriate option:

a. Neuroticism         1.Outgoing, energetic
b. Extraversion         2. Sensitive, nervous
c. Agreeableness     3. Efficient, organised
d. Conscientiousness    4.Friendly, compassionate

A. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
B. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
C. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
D. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

15. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option: "Do one thing that scares you everyday" helps to ___________.

A. Prepare yourself for exam
B. Undergo practice
C. Overcome fear
D. Questioning self esteem

16. Choose the factor from the given options that is associated with low self esteem.

A. Negative assessment from caregiver
B. Confidence
C. Ability to express your need
D. Ability to say no

17. What is accepted internationally as a professional sign of politeness?

A. Eye contact
B. Smile
C. Handshake
D. Shoes

18. Choose the options from those given below the one which is associated with the terms- perspective and point of view.

A. Prerogative
B. Understanding
C. Attitude
D. Courtesy

19. Fill in the blank: SWOT analysis is the examination of your __________.

A. Conditioning
B. Fear
C. Situation
D. Stigma

20. Read the statemernts given below and choose the most appropriate option from those given underneath.

A. Nobody is born with limitless self confidence.
B. We tend to behave in accordance
with our self image.

A. Only Statement A is correct.
B. Both the statements A & B are correct.
C. Only Statement B is corect.
D. Both the statements A & B are incorect.

21. People with ________ often feel unlovable, awkward or incompetent.

A. Low self esteem
B. Self confidence
C. High self esteem
D. Self esteem

22. Which of the following is the most important environmental factor that shapes personality?

A. County
B. Gender
C. Culture
D. Couture

23. Fill in the blank: __________ is the most important source of attitude formation.
 
A. Family
B. Masses
C. Pears
D. Conditioning 

24. Identify from the following options the most appropriate meaning of the Latin word Sanguin.

A. Charming
B. Cheerful 
C. Creepy
D. Chirpy

25. Fill in the blank: Positive self talk is __________.

A. Bragging
B. Speaking positively to your ownself
C. Speaking positively about yourself to others 
D. Self defeating

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